FREE SAT TESTS: READING AND WRITING PREPARATION
Are you excited to take our free Module 2nd of the SAT Reading and Writing Test? I hope you are finishing the whole test. There are more tests like this. We have designed a format similar to the SAT Examination. You take the SAT Test Reading and Writing Module Second to practice your skills. The best part is that you practice free within the time limit, and there are explanations of the correct answers and tips and tricks to get a perfect score on the SAT.
ABOUT THE SAT MODULES
The SAT is divided into four modules. There are two categories with each divided two modules into. The first category is “Reading and Writing” with two modules. The second category is “Math” with two modules. The one, you will do below is SAT Practice Test Reading and Writing Module 2nd.
The first module has questions ranging from easy to difficult, but the second module only contains difficult questions. If you want to take some other SATs, visit the links below.
- 1st Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 1st Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
SAT READING AND WRITING MODULE 2ND
The second module of the SAT reading and writing also contains four segments: Craft and Structure, Information and Ideas, Standard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas. The questions in Module 2nd are only difficult. In a real SAT exam, you must answer 27 questions within 32 minutes. You will find the same time structure here in this Practice Test.
Instructions for the SAT Real-Time Exam
- Go Back-and-Forth: You will see an arrow in the right or left corner of the slide. Click to move forward or backward.
- Interaction: At the top right corner, you will see a press button that tells you there are some interactive components in the slide. Click the press button to find out.
- Timer: On the top of the slide, you will see the timer, we have divided the time based on the average of the module 2nd. (The 32 minutes are equally divided into 27 questions’ time.) It is best to note the time before and after finishing the practice test to measure, “Was it within 32 minutes or not?”
- Image: You can click on graph, table, or other images to expand and see it on full screen.
- Mute: You can click on the speaker button to mute the audio.
- Mobile: You cannot take the real exam on mobile, but our practice exam you can give on mobile.
- Tips: This article will help you learn more about the SAT Exams. SAT: EVERYTHING ABOUT THE SAT
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SAT READING AND WRITING QUESTION SOLUTIONS WITH EXPLANATION
Do not open the tabs before finishing the practice test above! We have compiled all the solutions and their explanations here for your convenience. We will also give you some tips or advice to help you understand them better. You’ll see ‘why this answer is correct’ and ‘why this is incorrect.’
Reading and Writing Answers and Explanations
The color green shows the correct answer, red shows the incorrect answer, and blue shows tips or tricks.
1st Question
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ester Hernandez’s art. In this context, “featured” means shown prominently. The text focuses on where Hernandez’s works have been and continue to be displayed, explaining that her early works, which consisted of murals, could be viewed in outdoor spaces in San Francisco. The central contrast
developed in the text is between where her early works could be viewed and where her works can be viewed now, which is in museums across the United States and around the world. The context therefore supports the idea that Hernandez’s works are now shown, or featured, in museums globally.
Choice A is incorrect because in this context “invented” would mean created something for the first time, which isn’t supported since the text doesn’t discuss where Hernandez creates her works or whether they’re original or innovative.
Choice B is incorrect because “adjusted” in this context would mean adapted. Although the text mentions that many of Hernandez’s early works were outdoor murals and thus it may be reasonable to infer that Hernandez altered her approach to creating art so that her works could be displayed in indoor venues instead, the text makes no mention of how Hernandez’s works might have been
adapted for such venues. The text focuses on where Hernandez’s works have been and continue to be displayed, not on how she or anyone else may have adapted, or adjusted, her works.
Choice D is incorrect because “recommended” in this context would mean endorsed or put forth as a suggestion for something that is worth seeing. Although it may be reasonable to say that in choosing to display certain works, museum curators believe such works are worth seeing, the text doesn’t discuss the reasons why museums display Hernandez’s works. Instead, the text mainly develops a contrast between where Hernandez’s early works could once be viewed and where her work can be viewed now.
Work on your vocabulary and skimming skills.
2nd Question
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Carmen Lomas Garza’s artistic process. In this context, “inspired by” means influenced by or motivated by. The text refers to how, regardless of the scale of the work, Garza uses her memories of Texas and details from California to create her art. If Garza is basing her work on her direct experiences, then they play a part in her artistic process. This context thus suggests that Garza’s art is inspired by the experiences of her childhood in Texas and her current life in California.
Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make logical sense to indicate that Garza is “complimented by”—or praised by—something inanimate such as direct experience.
Choice B is incorrect because describing Garza as “uncertain about”—or unsure or doubtful of—direct experience would suggest that she had misgivings about it. If Garza were unsure of her experiences, that would suggest that she couldn’t recall them, and Garza wouldn’t be able to represent direct
experience in her art if she were uncertain of the memories or details.
Choice C is incorrect because describing Garza as “unbothered by”—or uninterested in—her experience would imply the opposite of what the text suggests about Garza’s artistic process. The text indicates that Garza’s art comes from memories of her childhood in Texas and details of her surroundings in California.
Work on your vocabulary, Preposition Phrase, and skimming skills.
3rd Question
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Bastos’s study of a wild kea parrot. In this context, “accidental” means unplanned or unintentional. The text first describes Bastos’s study, which concerns a kea that is observed using small stones to preen its feathers. The text then mentions colleagues who are skeptical (that is, they have doubt) about
Bastos’s findings, and finally describes how Bastos and her team responded to the skepticism of those colleagues. Given that the colleagues mentioned in the text expressed skepticism regarding Bastos’s findings, the best answer choice must be one that completes the text in a manner such that the skeptics’ opinion regarding the kea’s use of stones disagrees with that held by Bastos and her team. Since Bastos and her team showed that the kea’s use of stones was deliberate (that is, intentional), the skeptics’ opinion in this context must be that the kea’s use of stones was unintentional, or accidental.
Choice A is incorrect because the best answer choice is one that portrays skepticism, or doubt, of Bastos’s claim that the kea’s usage of stones was deliberate, or intentional. If the skeptics found the kea’s usage of stones “intriguing,” or fascinating, this would not be at odds with the position of Bastos
and her team; in fact, it is reasonable to believe that someone who agreed that the kea’s stone usage was deliberate would also find it intriguing.
Choice B is incorrect because if the skeptics believed that the kea’s usage of small stones was “obvious,” or evident, this would not be contrary to the observation of Bastos and her team that the kea’s usage of stones was deliberate: in fact, these opinions would be consistent with each other.
Choice D is incorrect because if the skeptics believed that the kea’s usage of small stones was “observable,” or visible, this would not conflict with the claim of Bastos and her team that the kea’s usage of stones were deliberate: instead, these positions would agree.
Work on your vocabulary and skimming skills.
4th Question
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Kelmscott Press’s books. In this context, “manifest in” means evident or apparent. The text states that the Kelmscott Press, which was co-founded by William Morris, produced its books using preindustrial methods. The text notes the similarity between those methods, which include the use of handmade materials and intricate ornamentation, and methods used in the creation of medieval manuscripts. This context suggests that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization is apparent from, or manifest in, the methods and materials his company employed.
Choice A is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to suggest that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization is “insensible to,” or unaware of or lacking perception of, the use of handmade materials and intricate ornamentation in the production of the Kelmscott editions. Instead, the text suggests that the methods and materials used to produce the Kelmscott editions are evidence
of Morris’s repudiation of industrialization.
Choice C is incorrect because it would not make sense to say that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization was “scrutinized by,” or examined closely by, the Kelmscott editions’ use of handmade
materials and intricate ornamentation. Although creating the Kelmscott editions may have involved examining the books closely, the text does not mention this aspect of Morris’s work, and in any case, the action of using certain materials to create those editions cannot scrutinize Morris’s attitude toward industrialization.
Choice D is incorrect because the text gives no indication that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization is “complicated by,” or made more complex or difficult by, the Kelmscott Press’s use of preindustrial methods and handcrafted elements to produce books. Instead, the text presents those methods as
exemplifying Morris’s repudiation of industrialization.
Work on your vocabulary, Preposition Phrase, and skimming skills.
5th Question
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Mary Engle Pennington and Stephanie Kwolek. In this context, “tentative” means unsettled or not definite. The text indicates a contrast between Pennington and Kwolek in terms of their memorability (“place in our historical memory”) and states that Kwolek “will long be remembered” for her invention of Kevlar material. This context suggests that although Pennington had an impact on society, she may be less likely than Kwolek to be remembered for a very long time—in other words, that her memorability may be more tentative, or less definite, than Kwolek’s.
Choice A is incorrect because the text establishes a contrast between Pennington and Kwolek in terms of their “place in our historical memory” for their achievements, and the statement that Kwolek “will be long remembered” while Pennington’s memorability may be more “permanent,” or enduring, wouldn’t supply a contrast; it would instead suggest that both people will remain memorable.
Choice C is incorrect because the text establishes a contrast between Pennington and Kwolek in terms of their memorability, suggesting that Pennington is less likely than Kwolek to be “long remembered,” but doesn’t address how “warranted,” or based on good reason, each person’s “place in our historical memory” is. In fact, the text suggests that both Pennington and Kwolek had significant achievements, even if one may be more memorable.
Choice D is incorrect because the text establishes a contrast between Pennington and Kwolek in terms of their “place in our historical memory” for their achievements, and the statement that Kwolek “will be long remembered” while Pennington’s memorability may be more “prominent,” or widely known, wouldn’t supply a contrast; it would instead suggest that both people are very memorable.
Work on your vocabulary and skimming skills.
6th Question
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately portrays the main purpose of the text. At the beginning of the text, Tom asserts that he and the other people staging the play are doing so only for “a little amusement among ourselves” and aren’t interested in attracting an audience or any attention to the production. Then, Tom promises that the play they chose is modest and appropriate, and he further reasons that using the well-written prose of “some respectable author” is better than using their own words. Overall, the main purpose of the text is to convey Tom’s promise that the play will be inoffensive and involve only a few people.
Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Tom had earlier intentions for the play’s performance or that anything has changed since the group first decided to stage a play. Instead, the text focuses on how harmless the entire endeavor will be.
Choice C is incorrect. Although Tom mentions that using the words of a “respectable author” will be better than using their own words, he never addresses the idea that the people around him generally aren’t skilled enough to stage a play.
Choice D is incorrect because in the text Tom specifically says that they “want no audience, no publicity,” which indicates that they don’t plan on promoting the play at all.
Time consuming: If you are running against time then guess the answer. Until you have rapid skimming skills, practice more and more.
7th Question
Choice A is the best answer because it accurately describes the organization of the elements within the text. The text begins with the claim that Joni Mitchell’s album covers use images she creates in order to emphasize ideas embedded in her albums. It then goes on to provide an example of how Mitchell’s self-portrait on the cover of Turbulent Indigo resembles a painting by Van Gogh, which the text indicates helps emphasize the strong connection Mitchell feels toward Van Gogh, a connection that is also expressed in the album’s title song.
Choice B is incorrect because there are no references in the text to artists other than Joni Mitchell and Van Gogh.
Choice C is incorrect because there is nothing in the text that calls attention to any similarities or differences between Joni Mitchell and Van Gogh. Instead, it mentions that Mitchell feels a strong “artistic connection” to Van Gogh.
Choice D is incorrect because the text discusses the cover before referring to any songs, and it only references one song from the album not all the songs.
Summarise the text using your skimming skills.
8th Question
Choice C is the best answer because it reflects how Putirka and Xu (Text 2) would likely characterize the conclusion presented in Text 1. Text 1 discusses a study by Mark Holland and colleagues in which they detected traces of lithium and sodium in the atmospheres of four white dwarf stars. The team claims that this supports the idea that exoplanets with continental crusts like Earth’s once orbited these stars. Text 2 introduces Putirka and Xu, who indicate that sodium and lithium are present in several different minerals and that some of those minerals might exist in types of rock that are not found on Earth. Therefore, Putirka and Xu would likely describe the conclusion in Text 1 as questionable because it does not consider that lithium and sodium are also found in rocks that are not like Earth’s continental crust.
Choice A is incorrect because the texts do not indicate how widely held any of the viewpoints described are.
Choice B is incorrect because neither text discusses how new this area of study is.
Choice D is incorrect because neither text discusses how likely lithium and sodium are to be detected by analyzing wavelengths of light.
Time consuming: If you are running against time then guess the answer. Until you have rapid skimming skills, practice more and more.
9th Question
Choice A is the best answer because it presents an explanation that is directly stated in the text for why ecologists are worried about Pando. The text states that Pando is a colony of about 47,000 quaking aspen trees that represents one of the largest organisms on Earth. According to the text, ecologists are worried that Pando’s growth is declining, partly because animals are feeding on the trees. In other words, the ecologists are worried that Pando isn’t growing at the same rate it used to.
Choice B is incorrect. Rather than indicating that Pando isn’t producing young trees anymore, the text reveals that Pando is indeed producing young trees, stating that those trees can be protected from grazing deer by strong fences.
Choice C is incorrect because the text states that fences can be used to prevent deer from eating Pando’s young trees, not that Pando itself can’t grow in new areas because it’s blocked by fences.
Choice D is incorrect because the text offers no evidence that Pando’s root system is incapable of supporting new trees or is otherwise a cause of worry for ecologists.
Work on your skimming skills.
10th Question
Choice D is the best answer because it states why Wang and his team’s discovery of the Terropterus xiushanensis fossil was significant. The text explains that up until Wang and his team’s discovery, the only fossil evidence of mixopterids came from the paleocontinent of Laurussia. Wang and his team, however, identified fossil remains of a mixopterid species from the paleocontinent Gondwana. Therefore, the team’s discovery was significant because the fossil remains of a mixopterid species were outside of the paleocontinent Laurussia.
Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that Wang and his team identified fossilized remains of a mixopterid species that lived more than 400 million years ago, it doesn’t indicate that mixopterid fossils previously found by scientists dated to a more recent period than that.
Choice B is incorrect. Although the text states that mixopterids are related to modern arachnids and horseshoe crabs, it doesn’t suggest that the fossil discovered by Wang and his team confirmed that this relationship is closer than scientists had previously thought.
Choice C is incorrect because the team’s fossil established the presence of mixopterids on Gondwana, not on Laurussia. Moreover, the text only discusses the fossil in relation to the geographical distribution of mixopterids, not in relation to their evolution.
Don’t get distracted by the name given in question, skim through the text.
11th Question
Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models. The text explains that although archaeologists hold that categorizing pottery fragment relies on both objective criteria and instinct developed through direct experience, researchers have found that a computer model can categorize the fragments with the same degree of accuracy as the humans can—a finding that has caused some archaeologists to worry that their own work won’t be needed any longer. If survey results indicate that categorizing pottery fragments limit the amount of time archaeologists can dedicate to other important tasks that only human experts can do, that would mean that computer models aren’t able to do all of the important things archaeologists do, thus supporting the researchers’ claim that computer models are unlikely to replace human archaeologists.
Choice A is incorrect because if it were true that the computer model could categorize the pottery fragments much more quickly than the archaeologists could, that would weaken the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models, since it would demonstrate that the models could conduct the archaeologists’ work not only with equal accuracy
but also at a faster pace.
Choice B is incorrect because the inability of both the computer model and the archaeologists to accurately categorize all of the pottery fragments presented wouldn’t support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models. The text indicates that
some archaeologists are worried because the computer model’s accuracy is equal to their own, and that could be the case whether both were perfectly accurate or were unable to achieve complete accuracy.
Choice D is incorrect because survey results show that few archaeologists received special training
in properly categorizing pottery fragments wouldn’t support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models. The amount of special training in categorizing pottery fragments that archaeologists have received has no direct bearing on whether computer
models’ success at categorizing fragments will lead to the models replacing the archaeologists.
Time consuming: Guess the answer if you take time to skim. Practice more by attempting questions like this before final examination.
12th Question
Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of military veterans working in civilian government jobs in the United States. The text indicates that the proportion of military veterans working in civilian government jobs is considerably higher than the proportion of military veterans in the population as a whole. The text also notes that the unusually high representation of military veterans in these jobs may be a result of the organizational structures shared by civilian government entities and the military. Hence, it’s reasonable to infer that it’s the familiarity of the structures of civilian government that makes jobs there particularly attractive to military veterans.
Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t address what a typical relationship between military service and later career preferences would be, and there’s no indication that it’s atypical for veterans to work in civilian government jobs after they’ve left the military. On the contrary, the text suggests that many military veterans are drawn to such jobs.
Choice C is incorrect because the text is focused on the high representation of military veterans in civilian government jobs and doesn’t address nonveterans or their possible interest in military
service.
Choice D is incorrect because the text conveys that military veterans may be particularly interested in civilian government jobs due to the familiarity of organizational structures that are already in place, but there’s no reason to think that this interest would mean that more civilian government jobs will start to require military experience.
Asking you to give the conclusion. Work on your skimming skills.
13th Question
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Shultz’s finding about male tanagers. The text explains that because carotenoids both contribute to deeply saturated feathers and offer health benefits, having deeply saturated feathers is usually “an honest signal” (a true indication) that a bird is generally fit. However, Shultz and others have found that certain male tanagers can appear to have deeply saturated feathers even if they haven’t consumed a diet rich in carotenoids, thanks to microstructures in their feathers that manipulate light. If those birds aren’t necessarily eating carotenoid-rich diets, they may actually be less fit than other birds that appear to have similarly saturated feathers; this suggests that a male tanager’s appearance may function as a
dishonest signal, or a false indication, of the bird’s overall fitness.
Choice A is incorrect because Shultz’s finding suggests that some tanagers can signal fitness without consuming the carotenoids that contribute to fitness, thereby making those signals dishonest, not that tanagers can give honest signals of their fitness without consuming carotenoids.
Choice B is incorrect because Shultz’s finding suggests that the microstructures in certain tanagers’
feathers can give a dishonest signal of fitness, not that the microstructures are less effective than actual pigmentation for signaling fitness. Whether the signal of fitness is honest or dishonest has no bearing on how effective the signal is: a signal is effective if potential mates behave as though it’s true, regardless of whether it’s actually true. Since there’s no information in the text about how potential mates respond to the dishonest signals of some tanagers, there’s no support for the idea that the dishonest signals are less effective than the honest signals.
Choice C is incorrect because Shultz’s finding suggests that certain male tanagers may appear to be fitter than they actually are, not that scientists haven’t determined why tanagers prefer mates with colorful appearances.
Use your English and logical understanding.
14th Question
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb “has been” agrees in number with the singular subject “writing.”
Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “were” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “writing.”
Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “have been” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “writing.”
Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “are” doesn’t agree in number with the singular
subject “writing.”
Check for subject-verb agreement in sentences and Perfect Tenses. Learn Tenses.
15th Question
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction “but” to join the first main clause (“the Alvarez…out”) and the second main clause (“it left … extinctions”).
Choice A is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma
can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.
Learn Punctuation and Conjunction.
16th Question
Choice A is the best answer because it describes an experimental outcome that would most directly weaken the student’s hypothesis. According to the text, the student hypothesizes that Brassica rapa parachinensis (choy sum) will benefit more from acidic soil than it will from neutral soil. The text then explains that the student planted 16 choy sum seeds in potting soil with coffee grounds added to increase acidity and another 16 seeds in soil without coffee grounds as a control (a group identical to the experimental group except for the experimental modification being tested). If the hypothesis were correct, the plants in the more acidic soil-and-coffee-grounds mixture would grow faster than those in the control group. However, choice A proposes a scenario in which the plants in soil without coffee
grounds were “significantly taller” than those in the more acidic mixture—an outcome that weakens the hypothesis that higher acidity is beneficial to the plants’ growth.
Choice B is incorrect. If the choy sum planted in the neutral soil produced less plant matter and therefore weighed less than the choy sum planted in the acidic soil-and-coffee-grounds mixture, this finding would strengthen the student’s hypothesis, not weaken it.
Choice C is incorrect. If seeds planted in neutral soil (without coffee grounds) sprouted significantly later than seeds planted in the acidic soil-and-coffee-grounds mixture, this finding would strengthen, not weaken the student’s hypothesis that acidic soil benefits choy sum.
Choice D is incorrect. If seeds planted in the neutral soil (without coffee grounds) sprouted
significantly fewer plants than seeds planted in the acidic soil and coffee grounds mixture did, this finding would strengthen, not weaken, the student’s the hypothesis that choy sum benefits from acidic soil.
Work on your skimming, reading and understanding skills.
17th Question
Choice B is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim in the text that in describing the teenaged girl, Mansfield contrasts the character’s pleasant appearance with her unpleasant attitude. In the quotation, Mansfield describes the teenager as having a “lovely nose” (a compliment about her appearance) but also as treating her makeup puff “as though she loathed it” (a
judgment suggesting her unpleasant attitude).
Choice A is incorrect because the teenager′s reaction to the flowers doesn’t make it clear that she has an unpleasant attitude, and nothing in the quotation indicates that any part of her appearance is pleasant.
Choice C is incorrect because the quotation suggests that the teenager has an unpleasant attitude (being upset with the location and leaving the table before the narrator has paid for the meal)
but doesn’t give any indication that she has a pleasant appearance.
Choice D is incorrect because the quotation suggests that the teenager may have an unpleasant attitude (lowering her eyes, wincing, and sitting in silence) but doesn’t give any indication that any part of her appearance is pleasant.
Asking for a summary, but still, you need skimming, reading, and understanding skills.
18th Question
Choice D is the best answer because it uses data from the graph to effectively illustrate the text’s claim about general economic policy uncertainty in the United Kingdom. The graph presents values for economic policy uncertainty in tax and public spending policy, trade policy, and general economic policy in the UK from 2005 to 2010. The graph shows that in 2005, the value for general economic
policy uncertainty (approximately 90) was substantially lower than the value for uncertainty about trade policy specifically (approximately 160). It also shows that in 2010, the value for general economic policy uncertainty (approximately 120) was substantially higher than the value for uncertainty about trade policy (approximately 70). The substantial differences between these values in 2005 and 2010 supports the claim that a general measure may not fully reflect uncertainty about specific areas of policy.
Choice A is incorrect because the graph shows that the level of general economic policy uncertainty was similar to the level of uncertainty about tax and public spending policy in both 2005 (with values of approximately 90 and 100, respectively) and 2009 (with values of approximately 80 and 75, respectively).
Choice B is incorrect because the graph shows that general economic policy uncertainty was higher than uncertainty about tax and public spending policy in 2006, 2007, and 2009, not that it was lower each year from 2005 to 2010.
Choice C is incorrect because the graph shows that general economic policy uncertainty reached its highest level in 2010, which was when uncertainty about tax and public spending policy also reached its highest level, not its lowest level.
Skim through the paragraph and understand the color and bar difference of the graph to find the correct answer.
19th Question
Choice C is the best answer because it presents the finding that, if true, would most strongly support Tannen’s hypothesis. According to the text, Tannen’s a hypothesis is that multiple perspectives presented in a non-competitive format is more informative than a debate between opposing viewpoints. If participants who saw a panel of three commentators with various views about an issue
answered more questions about the issue correctly than did participants who saw a debate, that would support Tannen’s hypothesis since it would show that participants who heard multiple varied perspectives were better informed than were participants who heard a debate between opposing viewpoints.
Choice A is incorrect because finding that participants perceived commentators in the debate as more knowledgeable than commentators in the panel is irrelevant to Tannen’s hypothesis, which is that presenting multiple perspectives on an issue is more informative to the audience than presenting opposing views of the issue is. Participants’ perception of how knowledgeable panelists are has no
bearing on how much participants learn from the panelists.
Choice B is incorrect because finding that participants perceived commentators in the panel as more
knowledgeable than a single commentator is irrelevant to Tannen’s hypothesis, which is that presenting multiple perspectives on an issue is more informative to the audience rather than presenting opposing views of the issue. Participants perception of how knowledgeable panelists are has no bearing on how much participants learn from the panelists, and Tannen’s hypothesis says nothing about how informative single commentators are.
Choice D is incorrect because finding that participants who watched a single commentator answered more questions correctly than participants who watched the debate did wouldn’t be relevant to
Tannen’s hypothesis is that hearing multiple varying perspectives is more informative than hearing a debate. Tannen’s hypothesis says nothing about how informative single commentators are.
Work on your skimming, reading, and understanding skills.
20th Question
Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from King Lear illustrates the claim that King Lear expresses regret for his actions. In the quotation, Lear describes striking himself on the head—the same act he’s engaged in as he speaks, and one that suggests he’s deeply upset with himself. Referring to himself in the second person (with “thy”), the character exclaims “Beat at this gate that let thy folly in / And thy dear judgment out!” Lear refers metaphorically to his own mind as a gate that has allowed folly, or poor judgment, to enter and good judgment to escape. This suggests that Lear regrets his attempts to test his three daughters’ devotion to him, regarding those
attempts as examples of the folly that has entered the gate of his mind.
Choice A is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t express King Lear’s sense of regret over his own actions; instead, it expresses his belief that the harm that others have done to him (or the extent to which they have “sinned against” him) outweighs whatever harm he himself has caused by “sinning.”
Choice B is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t express King Lear’s sense of regret over his own actions; instead, it expresses his thoughts about an approaching storm (“this tempest”), which he believes “will not give [him] leave to ponder,” or time to consider, the harm that he will continue to experience (“things” that “would hurt [him] more”).
Choice D is incorrect because this quotation expresses King Lear’s vow to commit terrible actions (or “things” that “shall be / The terrors of the earth”) in the future, not his regret over actions that he’s already taken.
Work on your skimming and summarising skills to blend sentences into one.
21st Question
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The comma after “sisters” pairs with the comma after “Butterflies” to separate the supplementary element “a fictionalized account of the lives of the Mirabal sisters” from the rest of the sentence. This supplementary element functions to describe the novel In the Time of the Butterflies, and the pair of commas indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.
Choice A is incorrect because a comma and conjunction can’t be used in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.
Choice B is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.
Choice D is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary
element from the rest of the sentence.
You should work on Conjunction and Punctuation.
22nd Question
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between main clauses and a supplementary element. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause (“The vessel took six days to dislodge”) and the supplementary element (“in part due to its sheer size”) that provides additional information on why the vessel was difficult to dislodge. Additionally, this choice correctly uses a colon to introduce another main clause that describes the vessel’s size (“it’s as heavy as two thousand blue whales when fully loaded”).
Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between two main clauses (“The vessel…size” and “it’s…loaded”). Additionally, it fails to mark the boundary between the main clause (“The vessel took six days to dislodge”) and the supplementary element (“in part due to its sheer size”).
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between two main clauses (“The vessel…size” and “it’s…loaded”).
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses (“The vessel…size”
and “it’s…loaded”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.
Work on your Punctuation.
23rd Question
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation around noun phrases. No punctuation is needed because the noun the phrase “Tamatoa the crab” is a restrictive appositive, meaning that it provides essential identifying information about the noun phrase before it, “the character.” Additionally, no punctuation is needed between the noun phrase “the deep and
humorous voice…crab” and the verb “belongs” that indicates whom the voice belongs to.
Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed.
Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed.
Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed.
Improve your punctuation like comma, colon, semi-colon, full-stop…
24th Question
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb “underlie” agrees in number with the plural subject “frameworks.”
Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb “underlies” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “frameworks.”
Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb “is underlying” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “frameworks.”
Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb “has been underlying” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “frameworks.”
You should start working on the Present Tense, better learn all tenses and verbs. Learn Tenses.
25th Question
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. This choice pairs the comma after “Serra” with the comma after “environment” and uses the nonfinite present participle “intending” to correctly form a supplementary phrase describing the reaction Serra intends his sculptures to provoke. This supplementary phrase appears between the noun phrase that
it modifies (“American abstract artist Richard Serra”) and the finite present tense verb (“assembles”), which functions as the sentence’s main verb and describes what Serra does?
Choice A is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The the finite present continuous tense verb “is intending” can’t be used in this way in conjunction with the finite present tense verb “assembles,” which already functions as the main verb in the sentence.
Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite present tense verb “intends” can’t be used in this way to supplement the noun phrase “American abstract artist Richard Serra.”
Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite present tense verb “intends” can’t be used in this way in conjunction with the finite present tense verb “assembles,” which already functions as the main verb in the sentence.
You should start working on the Present Tense, better learn all tenses. Learn Tenses.
26th Question
Choice A is the best answer. “Nevertheless” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the spacesuits Suttirat Larlarb designed for the film Sunshine were made in standard sizes in a factory—presents a notable exception to Larlarb’s typical approach of custom-fitting garments to actors, which is described in the previous sentence.
Choice B is incorrect because “thus” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a result or consequence of the previous information about Larlarb’s typical approach of custom-fitting garments to actors. Instead, it presents a notable exception to Larlarb’s typical approach.
Choice C is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the previous information about Larlarb’s typical approach of custom-fitting garments to actors. Instead, it presents a notable exception to Larlarb’s typical approach.
Choice D is incorrect because “moreover” illogically signals that the information in this sentence merely adds to the previous information about Larlarb’s typical approach of custom-fitting garments to actors. Instead, it presents a notable exception to Larlarb’s typical approach.
Learn Adverb and Conjunction.
27th Question
Choice D is the best answer. The sentence uses “both” to emphasize a thematic similarity between Tan’s two books, noting that both Tales from Outer Suburbia and Tales from the Inner City describe surreal events occurring in otherwise ordinary places.
Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference (one contains fewer stories than the other), not a similarity, between the two books.
Choice B is incorrect. The sentence indicates that Tan’s books were published ten years apart; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two books.
Choice C is incorrect. The sentence uses “unlike” to emphasize a difference between Tales from Outer Suburbia and Tales from the Inner City; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two books.
The more you practice – the better you will become on it. These types of questions are literary conclusive of your reading and writing skills.
You should complete the test within the time limit and practice more and more. That is how you will take the final SAT exam and be able to score 1400+ on the SAT. The explanation of answers makes it easy to learn and progress. You must try to work on your speed. “The harder the question – the greater the score.” This is the 2nd Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 2nd.
Either you can take the 3rd Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing or the 2nd Practice Test of SAT Math Module 1st.
- SAT Test 3rd (Math Module 1st)
- SAT Test 3rd (Reading and Writing Module 2nd)
- SAT Test 2nd (Reading and Writing Module 1st)
Keep up the hard work. I wish you the best of luck in your future endeavors to get admission to your desired college after the SAT.