SAT Questions Answers (SAT Reading and Writing Test)

TAKE SAT TEST: REAL-TIME EXAMINATION PRACTICE

Looking to score more than 1400 on the SAT Test? If yes, then you are in the right place. We provide you FREE real-time SAT Exam experience with all the necessary features. You just take the SAT Test of Reading and Writing Module First to practice your skills. The best part is the time limit to prepare yourself to answer SAT Questions within the assigned time, and there are explanations of the correct answers and tips and tricks to get a perfect score on the SAT.

Prepare for SAT Exam (SAT Questions, Answers, Explanations, Tips)

ABOUT THE SAT MODULES

The SAT is divided into four modules. There are two categories with each divided two modules into. The first category is “Reading and Writing” with two modules. The second category is “Math” with two modules. The one, you will do below is SAT Practice Test Reading and Writing Module 1st.

The first module keeps questions from easy to difficult but the second module only contains difficult questions. If you want to do some other SATs then visit the links below.

SAT READING AND WRITING MODULE 1ST

The first module of reading and writing in SAT contains four segments Craft and Structure, Information and IdeasStandard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas. The questions in Module 1st are from easy to difficult. In a real SAT exam, you will have to answer 27 questions within 32 minutes. The same you will find here in this Practice Test.

Instructions for the SAT Real-Time Exam

  1. Go Back-and-Forth: You will see an arrow on the right or left corner of the slide, click to move forward or backward.
  2. Interaction: You will see a press button at the top right corner that tells you there are some interactive components in the slide. Click the press button to find out.
  3. Timer: On the top of the slide, you will see the timer, we have divided the time based on the average of the module 1st. (The 32 minutes are equally divided into 27 questions’ time.) It is best to note the time before and after finishing the practice test to measure, “Was it within 32 minutes or not?”
  4. Mute: You can click on the speaker button to mute the audio.
  5. Image: You can click on graph, table, or other images to expand and see it on full screen.
  6. Mobile: You cannot take the real exam on mobile, but our practice exam you can give on mobile.
  7. Tips: This article will help you learn more about the SAT Exams. SAT: EVERYTHING ABOUT THE SAT
Wait here for the SAT Test to appear.

SAT READING AND WRITING QUESTION SOLUTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

Do not open the tabs before finishing the practice test above! For your convenience, we have compiled all the solutions and their explanations here. We will also give you some tips or advice to help you understand them better. You’ll see ‘why this answer is correct’ and ‘why this is incorrect.’

Reading and Writing Answers and Explanations

The color Green shows the Correct answer, red shows Incorrect, and blue shows Tips or Tricks.

1st Question

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the OSIRIS-REx spacecraft’s contact with the asteroid 101955 Bennu. In this context, “collected” means acquired and took away. The text indicates that although the boulders on the asteroid’s surface caused some unforeseen problems, OSIRIS-REx was able to gather a sample to return to Earth. This context suggests that OSIRIS-REx successfully collected a sample of 101955 Bennu.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context “attached” means connected or affixed. The text indicates that OSIRIS-REx gathered pieces of 101955 Bennu to bring to Earth; it doesn’t suggest that the spacecraft attached anything to the asteroid.

Choice C is incorrect because in this context “followed” means tracked or traveled behind and the text discusses OSIRIS-REx’s brief encounter with 101955 Bennu during which the spacecraft gathered a sample to bring to Earth. The text doesn’t suggest that the spacecraft tracked the sample, and it’s not clear what it would mean for the spacecraft to travel behind the sample it collected.

Choice D is incorrect because in this context “replaced” means put back or returned. The text indicates that OSIRIS-REx gathered pieces of 101955 Bennu to bring to Earth but doesn’t suggest that anything was returned to the asteroid.

Read a sentence before and then the blank sentence.

2nd Question

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Moon’s surface. In this context, “reflect” means show or make apparent. The text states that because the surface of the Moon was softer when the Moon was still forming than it is now, early asteroid and meteoroid impacts “would have left less of an impression” and, as a result, evidence of them may no longer exist. This context supports the idea that the surface of the Moon may not accurately show signs of early impact events.

Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the surface of the Moon may not accurately “receive,” or acquire or experience, early impacts from asteroids or meteoroids. The text indicates that the impacts have already occurred, and it isn’t clear how the Moon’s surface could be accurate or inaccurate in experiencing them.

Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the surface of the Moon may not accurately “evaluate,” or determine the significance or condition of, early impacts from asteroids or meteoroids since that would suggest that it’s possible for the Moon’s surface to make a decision of any kind.

Choice D is incorrect. In this context, “mimic” would mean to deliberately simulate or closely imitate something. It wouldn’t make sense to say that the surface of the Moon may not accurately mimic early asteroids and meteoroid impacts, since that would suggest that it’s possible for the Moon to deliberately imitate something.

Work on your skimming by practicing more.

3rd Question

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion about handedness in animals. As used in this context, “recognizable” means apparent or identifiable. The text indicates that handedness is “easy to observe in humans,” but that animal-behavior researchers use special tasks to determine handedness in other animals. This context and the use of “less” before the blank indicate that compared with handedness in humans, handedness in other animals is less recognizable.

Choice B is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that handedness is less “intriguing,” or fascinating, in nonhuman animals than it is in humans. The text focuses on how easy it is to observe handedness in humans as compared with other animals; the text doesn’t suggest that handedness is more fascinating in humans.

Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that handedness is less “significant,” or important or meaningful, in nonhuman animals than it is in humans. The text focuses on how easy it is to observe handedness in humans as compared with other animals; the text doesn’t suggest that handedness is more significant in humans.

Choice D is incorrect because “useful,” or functional or helpful, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on the ease with which researchers can determine whether an animal or person is right- or left-handed, not on how useful handedness in nonhuman animals is compared with handedness in humans.

Work on your skimming by practicing more.

4th Question

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the influences on Banisadr’s work. As used in this context, “unimportant” means trivial or lacking value. “It is by no means” establishes that the word that goes in the blank is contradicted by other information; the material that follows “indeed” later in that sentence provides the contradicting information—namely, that Banisadr himself cites Bosch as an inspiration. In other words, the sentence indicates that Bosch’s influence on Banisadr is significant, and thus recognizing that influence is by no means unimportant.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that recognizing Bosch’s influence on Banisadr isn’t “substantial,” or meaningful. The text states that Banisadr himself cites Bosch as an influence.

Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that it isn’t “satisfying,” or pleasing, to recognize Bosch’s influence on Banisadr. The text states that Banisadr himself cites Bosch as an influence.

Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that recognizing Bosch’s influence on Banisadr isn’t “appropriate,” or suitable. The text indicates that Banisadr himself notes that Bosch’s work has had an effect on him.

Read more and more until you become proficient in it.

5th Question

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The text begins by stating that the new picture “failed to fit in” with the other items that the shop owner has. The text goes on to illustrate that point by describing the other pictures the shop owner has, indicating that the shop owner is fuming because he doesn’t think the new picture belongs in the store. In the second paragraph, however, the text indicates that the shop owner is “secretly proud of his acquisition.” The main purpose of the text is thus to reveal the shop owner’s conflicted feelings about the new picture.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the shop owner resents the young man who sold him the new picture; in fact, the text gives no indication of the owner’s feelings about the young man at all.

Choice C is incorrect. Although the text indicates that the new picture is different from the other items in the shop, there’s no suggestion that the shop owner prizes either the new picture or the pictures of the city, pets, and landscapes more than he prizes any other items.

Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe what the new picture looks like; rather, the text identifies some of the other kinds of images that the shop owner has and states that they’re different from the new picture without explaining how they’re different.

Work on your skimming by practicing more.

6th Question

Choice B is the best answer because the description of the “soft ticking of the clock” and “whispering wind” creates a calm and peaceful mood.

Choice A is incorrect because the passage doesn’t contain words that convey excitement.

Choice C is incorrect. The passage does not suggest fear or any sense of danger.

Choice D is incorrect because Emily feels a “strange sense of peace,” which doesn’t indicate sadness.

Look for keywords that describe sensory details (sound, sight, and feeling) to identify the mood.

7th Question

Choice C is the best answer because the passage mentions the responsibility to “protect these rights and ensure they are extended to all people.”

Choice A is incorrect because the speaker focuses on protecting existing rights, not necessarily fighting for more.

Choice B is incorrect. While this is part of the message, the primary responsibility is to protect and extend rights.

Choice D is incorrect because the speech does not mention economic development.

Pay attention to phrases like “our responsibility” to understand the main argument or call to action.

8th Question

Choice A is the best answer because the passage describes how temperature changes (cause) affect bird migration (effect).

Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not present events in a time sequence.

Choice C is incorrect. Although it discusses a problem (climate change), it does not offer a solution.

Choice D is incorrect because there is no comparison between different subjects.

When identifying structure, look for signal words like “because,” “therefore,” or “as a result,” which indicate cause-and-effect relationships.

9th Question

Choice C is the best answer because “Have led” is the correct past participle form of “lead.”

Choice A is incorrect because “Lead” is incorrect as it is in the present tense.

Choice B is incorrect. “Has” is singular and should not be used with a plural subject like “issues.”

Choice D is incorrect because “Had led” would imply the past perfect, which is not necessary here.

Remember that “led” is the Past Tense and Past Participle of “lead.” “Lead” is only Present Tense.

10th Question

Choice B is the best answer because “Continue” matches the plural subject “efforts.”

Choice A is incorrect because “Continues” is incorrect because it is singular and does not match the plural subject.

Choice C is incorrect. This shifts the tense unnecessarily.

Choice D is incorrect because this is not a grammatically complete sentence.

Always ensure subject-verb agreement, especially in longer sentences with multiple Nouns. Learn Present Tense and Types of Noun.

11th Question

Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from “The Bet” to illustrate the claim that the banker was very upset about something. The quotation indicates that the banker shed tears, which suggests that he was likely unhappy about something and that his emotions were so strong that they kept him from sleeping for hours. These details suggest that the banker was very upset.

Choice A is incorrect because this quotation mainly describes the banker cautiously unlocking a door; it doesn’t suggest that he was particularly upset about anything.

Choice B is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t mention whether the banker was experiencing any particularly strong negative feelings; instead, the quotation focuses on the quietness of the setting.

Choice C is incorrect because this quotation states that the banker was feeling “delighted,” not that he was upset.

You require good English to understand it.

12th Question

Choice B is the best answer because it uses data from the table to complete the statement regarding a species for which the problem of finding a suitable habitat would be especially concerning. For each candidate species, the table lists its common name, scientific name, and when the species became extinct. The text explains that scientists pursuing de-extinction for the candidate species also
consider the length of time that has passed since the species’ extinction, noting that the longer the animal has been extinct, the less likely it is that a suitable habitat would exist for the species today. The possibility of not having a suitable habitat would be especially concerning for the candidate species for which the most time has passed since its extinction. According to the table, this species would be the saber-toothed cat, which became extinct 11,000 years before the present.

Choice A is incorrect because it compares the time since the extinction of the passenger pigeon to the time since the extinction of the huia instead of citing the species listed in the table that has been extinct the longest (the saber-toothed cat). The text indicates that the longer a species has been extinct, the lower the chances are that a suitable habitat exists for it today. Neither the table nor the
text supports the claim that the passenger pigeon is especially vulnerable to this problem.

Choice C is incorrect because the text states that the longer a species has been extinct, the less likely it is that there would be a suitable habitat available for the species today. So, the problem would be especially concerning for the saber-toothed cat, which became extinct several thousand years before the woolly mammoth did—not the other way around.

Choice D is incorrect because the text states that the longer a species has been extinct, the lower the chances are that a suitable habitat would be available for that species today. According to the table, the Caribbean monk seal became extinct in 1952, which is the most recent extinction listed for a candidate species in the table.

Skim the paragraph or here look for the sentence, then find the detail that is the most relatable to it. In this case, you are asked for the oldest extinct species.

13th Question

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the researchers’ hypothesis that TMAO reduces water’s compressibility. The text explains that at great depths in the ocean, extreme pressure compresses the molecular structure of water by destabilizing the hydrogen bonds between adjacent molecules, thereby allowing water to penetrate proteins and harm the
associated organisms. However, deep-sea organisms called piezophiles have adapted to live at these depths and previous studies show a positive correlation between the depth at which a piezophile species lives and the species’ level of the compound TMAO. Because this hypothesis links TMAO levels with reduced compressibility of water’s tetrahedral molecular structure, a finding that TMAO
helps maintain the hydrogen bonds between water molecules under high pressure would strongly support that hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the researchers’ hypothesis suggests a relationship between TMAO and water molecules’ tetrahedral molecular structure, that relationship involves TMAO helping maintain water’s tetrahedral molecular structure under high pressure; as presented in the text, the hypothesis doesn’t contend that water molecules are impervious to, or incapable of being penetrated by, TMAO.

Choice B is incorrect because the text discusses how the molecular structure of water, not TMAO, is compressed under extreme pressure and never addresses how TMAO might be affected by such pressure.

Choice C is incorrect because the researchers’ hypothesis holds that water under extreme pressure
is more resistant, not less, to being compressed when TMAO concentrations are higher. Moreover, the positive correlation mentioned in the text is between TMAO concentrations and the depths at which piezophiles live, not between concentrations of TMAO and the rate at which water’s molecular structure compresses as pressure increases.

Work on your skimming skills.

14th Question

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Cretaceous pterosaur Tupandactylus navigans. The text first describes what paleontologists initially speculated to be true of T. navigans based on observing only fossilized skulls of the pterosaur rather than complete
skeletons—namely, that T. navigans had an oversized head crest and that, like other pterosaurs, its main mode of movement must have been flight. The text goes on to describe what researcher Victor Beccari and his team concluded based on studying a nearly complete fossilized skeleton of T. navigans, which provided additional information that fossilized skulls alone could not. Beccari and colleagues determined that T. navigans had long hind legs, short wings, and an unusually long neck, in addition to the oversized head crest previously observed by paleontologists. Taken together, these characteristics would have made sustained flight difficult and upright walking comfortable, which would make T. navigans different from other pterosaurs that moved mainly through flight. Thus, Beccari and colleagues suggest that previously held speculations of paleontologists are inaccurate: that instead of moving mainly through powered flight, T. navigans likely flew for shorter distances and spent more time walking than researchers previously thought.

Choice A is incorrect because Beccari and his team determined, based on their examination of a nearly complete skeleton, that T. navigans would have found “sustained flight difficult,” which would differentiate it from most other pterosaurs that moved mainly through flight. Therefore, Beccari’s team would not suggest that T. navigans flew for longer distances than did other pterosaur species with large head crests.

Choice B is incorrect because the fossilized skeleton studied by Beccari and colleagues was notable for its short wings, and because no indication in the text is made that other pterosaurs were thought
by paleontologists to be comfortable walking. Therefore, Beccari’s team would not suggest that T. navigans had longer wings than other pterosaur species considered to have been comfortable walking.

Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that Beccari and his team agree with the paleontologists mentioned earlier in the text that T. navigans had a large-crested head. Therefore, Beccari’s team would not suggest that T. navigans had a smaller head than researchers
previously expected.

Mostly, the underlined blank at the end of the sentence asks for the conclusion. So work on your skimming skills then summarise it.

15th Question

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of a study involving ethical consumers. According to the text, ethical consumers are people who strive to purchase goods and services with positive or neutral effects on society and the environment. The text explains that consumer psychologists believe these consumers are more likely to purchase a product
if its effects correspond better to their values. The text then introduces a study of ethical consumers’ attitudes toward a specific mobile phone, indicating that participants in their twenties had a less positive attitude toward the phone’s effects on society and the environment than participants in other age groups did. The text indicates that readers should assume there are no other differences
between the participants in their twenties and those in other age groups. If the consumer psychologists’ theory is correct, as the text proposes, then the study’s finding suggests that ethical consumers in their twenties are less likely to purchase the phone than ethical consumers in other age groups are.

Choice A is incorrect because the text mentions only the mobile phone used in the study and therefore provides no basis to compare participants’ attitudes toward that phone with their attitudes toward any other phone.

Choice C is incorrect because the study’s finding suggests the contrary. The text indicates that study participants in their twenties had a less positive attitude toward the phone’s social and environmental effects than study participants in other age groups did. If the consumer psychologists’ theory is true, as the text proposes, then the study’s finding suggests that ethical consumers in their twenties are
meaningfully less likely to purchase the phone than ethical consumers in other age groups are.

Choice D is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that ethical consumers in their twenties are more likely than ethical consumers in other age groups to consider a phone’s social and ecological effects when deciding whether to purchase it. Rather, the text’s discussion of people who identify as ethical consumers suggests that they all consider the social and ecological effects of products, regardless of age.

Mostly, the underlined blank at the end of the sentence asks for the conclusion. So work on your skimming skills then summarise it.

17th Question

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of a crater’s connection to the start of the Younger Dryas. According to the text, some scientists believe that a comet fragment hitting Earth caused the cooling of the Younger Dryas period to come about. The text then indicates that a team of scientists found a crater in Greenland, which some believe supports the
theory of a comet fragment hitting Earth to initiate the Younger Dryas. However, the text also notes that the team was unable to determine the age of the crater. If the age of the crater can’t be determined, then its connection to the Younger Dryas period can’t be confirmed either. Thus, it can’t be concluded that the impact that made the crater was connected to the beginning of the Younger
Dryas.

Choice B is incorrect because though the text suggests that the age of the comet crater found by a team of scientists is uncertain, it doesn’t address whether a comet fragment can make a crater as large as 19 miles wide. The text doesn’t consider the size of comet fragments and how they relate to the size of craters they might make.

Choice C is incorrect because the debate in the text centers on the age of the crater found, not the cause of the crater. The text doesn’t indicate uncertainty about what caused the discovered crater.

Choice D is incorrect because the text suggests that the age of the crater found by the team of scientists is uncertain, not that the dates of the Younger Dryas are uncertain or incorrect. The text states that “the Younger Dryas was a period of extreme cooling from 11,700 to 12,900 years ago” but doesn’t indicate any debate about the timing of the period.

You must read and understand the whole paragraph, cause you need to choose an option that gives the conclusion.

18th Question

Choice C is the best answer. The conventions being tested are punctuation use between titles and proper nouns and between verbs and integrated quotations. No punctuation is needed to set off the proper noun “Stina Chyn” from the title that describes Chyn, “critic.” Because “Stina Chyn” is essential information identifying the “critic,” no punctuation is necessary. Further, no punctuation is needed between the verb “claims” and the following quotation because the quotation is integrated into the structure of the sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed before or after the proper noun “Stina Chyn.” Setting the critic’s name off with commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case.

Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed before or after the proper noun “Stina Chyn.” Setting the critic’s name off with commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Additionally, no punctuation is needed between “claims” and the integrated quotation.

Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb “claims” and its subject, “critic Stina Chyn.” Additionally, no punctuation is needed between the verb “claims” and the integrated quotation.

You should work on your punctuation.

19th Question

Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, “some historians”), and this choice supplies the finite present tense verb “claim” to indicate what some historians do.

Choice A is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “claiming” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “having claimed” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to claim” doesn’t supply
the main clause with a finite verb.

You should learn Gerund, Infinitive, Participles, and Tenses to answer correctly.

20th Question

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is colon use within a sentence. A colon used in this way introduces information that illustrates or explains information that has come before it. In this case, the colon introduces the following explanation of why some roundworms in the Southern Hemisphere move in the opposite direction of Earth’s magnetic field.

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two long independent clauses (“Researchers…food” and “in…sources”) such as these.

Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two clauses (“Researchers…food” and “in…sources”) are fused without punctuation. Furthermore, the conjunction “while” fails to indicate that what follows is an explanation of why some roundworms in the Southern Hemisphere move in the opposite direction of Earth’s magnetic field.

Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two clauses (“Researchers… food” and “in…sources”) are fused without punctuation and/or conjunction.

A common is for tiny pauses and a semi-colon is for pauses. Learn Punctuation.

21st Question

Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The plural reflexive pronoun “themselves” agrees in number with the plural antecedent “turtle barnacles,” correctly indicating what is attached to a sea turtle shell.

Choice A is incorrect because the singular pronoun “it” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “turtle barnacles.”

Choice C is incorrect because it results in an unclear and confusing sentence. In this context, it’s unclear what the plural pronoun “them” refers to.

Choice D is incorrect because the singular reflexive pronoun “itself” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “turtle barnacles.”

Learn Pronouns for better understanding.

22nd Question

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb “allows” agrees in number with the singular subject “landing.”

Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “are allowing” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “landing.”

Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb “have allowed” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “landing.”

Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “allow” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “landing.”

Check a sentence before or the blanked sentence to check “Is it present or past?” Learn Present Tense to understand better.

23rd Question

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation
of a supplementary word or phrase between two main clauses. This choice
correctly uses a comma to separate the supplementary adverb “however” from
the preceding main clause (“Okinaka doesn’t…single-handedly”) and a semicolon
to join the next main clause (“all…culture”) to the rest of the sentence. Further,
placing the semicolon after “however” correctly indicates that the information
in the preceding main clause (Okinaka doesn’t make such decisions singlehandedly)
is contrary to what might be assumed from the information in the
previous sentence (Okinaka sits on the review board that adds new sites to the
Hawaii Register of Historic Places).

Choice B is incorrect because placing the semicolon after “single-handedly” and the comma after “however” illogically indicates that the information in the next main clause (all historical designations must be approved by a group of experts) is contrary to the information in the previous clause (Okinaka doesn’t make such decisions single-handedly).

Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Commas can’t be used in this way to punctuate a supplementary word or phrase between two main clauses.

Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

A comma is for tiny pauses and a semi-colon is for pauses. Read the paragraph by implying pauses practically then you will understand it better.

24th Question

Choice C is the best answer. “Finally” logically signals that the bill passing—following many attempts between 1968 and 1983—is the final, concluding event in the sequence described in the previous sentences.

Choice A is incorrect because “instead” illogically signals that the bill passing is an alternative to one of the events described in the previous sentences. It is the final event in the sequence.

Choice B is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the bill passing is similar to one of the events described in the previous sentences. Instead, it is the final event in the sequence.

Choice D is incorrect because “additionally” illogically signals that the bill passing is merely another event described along with the events of the previous sentences. Instead, it is the final, concluding event in the sequence.

Read the paragraph to understand better which word is the most suitable.

25th Question

Choice D is the best answer. “However” logically signals that this sentence, which indicates that the Pūhāhonu volcano may be larger than the Mauna Loa volcano, offers a contrast to or refutation of the previous assumption that Mauna Loa is the largest shield volcano.

Choice A is incorrect because “secondly” illogically signals that this sentence merely offers an additional or secondary point concerning the previous assumption that Mauna Loa is the largest shield volcano. Instead, the sentence offers a contrast to or refutation of that assumption.

Choice B is incorrect because “consequently” illogically signals that this sentence offers a result or consequence of the previous assumption that Mauna Loa is the largest shield volcano. Instead, the sentence offers a contrast to or refutation of that assumption.

Choice C is incorrect because “moreover” illogically signals that this sentence merely adds to the previous assumption that Mauna Loa is the largest shield volcano. Instead, the sentence offers a contrast to or refutation of that assumption.

Read the paragraph to understand better which word is the most suitable. Don’t just the sentence before the blank sentence, read the whole paragraph to get a better grasp.

26th Question

Choice A is the best answer. “In addition” logically signals that the detail in this sentence—that Coleridge-Taylor included traditional African music in his classical compositions—adds to the information in the previous sentence. Specifically, the previous sentence indicates one way in which Coleridge-Taylor emphasized his mixed-race ancestry, and the claim that follows indicates a second, additional way.

Choice B is incorrect because “actually” illogically signals that the detail in this sentence is surprising in light of the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the detail adds to the information, indicating a second, additional way in which Coleridge-Taylor emphasized his mixed-race ancestry.

Choice C is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the detail in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the detail adds to the information, indicating a second, additional way in which Coleridge-Taylor emphasized his mixed-race ancestry.

Choice D is incorrect because “regardless” illogically signals that the detail in this sentence is true despite the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the detail adds to the information, indicating a second, additional way in which Coleridge-Taylor emphasized his mixed-race ancestry.

Read the paragraph to understand better which word is the most suitable.

27th Question

Choice A is the best answer. “Therefore” logically signals that the action described in this sentence—the researchers theorizing that the dish was named for its effect on diners—is a result or consequence of the previous observation that the dish had a calming effect.

Choice B is incorrect because “alternately” illogically signals that the action described in this sentence offers an alternative or contrast to the previous observation that the dish had a calming effect. Instead, the action is a result or consequence of that observation.

Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the action described in this sentence occurs despite the previous observation that the dish had a calming effect. Instead, the action is a result or consequence of that observation.

Choice D is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that this sentence merely adds a second, similar detail to the previous observation that the dish had a calming effect. Instead, this sentence describes an action that is a result or consequence of that observation.

Read the paragraph to understand better which word is the most suitable.

Our team has reviewed some of the best SAT learning materials for your convenience. These materials are best for your career growth.

Did you get the real-time experience? That is how you will take the final SAT exam. The explanation of answers makes it easy to learn and progress. You must try to work on your speed and spend less time on the beginning questions and more on the later questions. This is the 2nd Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 1st.

Either you can take the 3rd Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing or the 2nd Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 2nd.

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