
SAT QUESTION AND ANSWER PREP: REAL-TIME TEST PRACTICE
Have you tried our SAT Tests? If not, then you are in the right place. We have designed a similar exam format with all the necessary features. You just take the SAT Q&A Test Reading and Writing Module First to practice your skills. The best part is that you practice the free SAT Exam with a time limit and there are explanations of the correct answers, and tips and tricks to get a perfect score on the SAT.

ABOUT THE SAT MODULES
The SAT is divided into four modules. There are two categories with each divided two modules into. The first category is “Reading and Writing” with two modules. The second category is “Math” with two modules. The one, you will do below is SAT Practice Test Reading and Writing Module 1st.
The first module keeps questions from easy to difficult but the second module only contains difficult questions. If you want to do some other SATs then visit the links below.
- 1st Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 1st Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
SAT READING AND WRITING MODULE 1ST
The first module of reading and writing in SAT contains four segments Craft and Structure, Information and Ideas, Standard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas. The questions in Module 1st are from easy to difficult. In a real SAT exam, you will have to answer 27 questions within 32 minutes. The same you will find here in this Practice Test.
Instructions for the SAT Real-Time Exam
- Go Back-and-Forth: You will see an arrow on the right or left corner of the slide, click to move forward or backward.
- Interaction: You will see on the top right corner a press button that tells you, there are some interactive components in the slide. You click the press button to know.
- Timer: On the top of the slide, you will see the timer, we have divided the time based on the average of the module 1st. (The 32 minutes are equally divided into 27 questions’ time.) It is best if you note the time before starting and after finishing the practice test to measure, “Was it within 32 minutes or not?”
- Image: You can click on graph, table, or other images to expand and see it on full screen.
- Mobile: You cannot take the real exam on mobile, but our practice exam you can give on mobile.
- Mute: You can click on the speaker button to mute the audio.
- Tips: This article will help you know more about the SAT Exams. SAT: EVERYTHING ABOUT THE SAT
Our team has reviewed some of the best SAT learning materials for your convenience. These materials are best for your career growth.
- SAT Study Cards: https://amzn.to/3NJLI4O
- SAT Prep Book By Dr. Shaan Patel: https://amzn.to/4f0Oi2y
- Check Our Review Blog: review.mrenglishkj.com
SAT READING AND WRITING QUESTION AND ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION
Do not open the tabs before finishing the practice test above! We have compiled all the solutions and their explanations here for your convenience. We will also give you some tips or advice to help you understand them better. You’ll see ‘why this answer is correct’ and ‘why this is incorrect.’
Reading and Writing Answers and Explanations
The color green shows the correct answer, red shows the incorrect answer, and blue shows tips or tricks.
1st Question
Question: The following text is adapted from Jean Webster’s 1912 novel Daddy-Long-Legs. The narrator is a young college student writing letters detailing her weekly experiences.
[The college is] organizing the Freshman basket-ball team and there’s just a chance that I shall make it. I’m little of course, but terribly quick and wiry and tough. While the others are hopping about in the air, I can dodge under their feet and grab the ball.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To compare basketball with other sports
B) To provide details of how to play basketball
C) To state how players will be chosen for the basketball team
D) To explain why the narrator thinks she might make the basketball team
Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. In the first sentence of the text, the narrator states that she thinks there’s a chance she will become part of the basketball team at her college. She goes on to explain that she is “quick” and “tough.” Based on these characteristics, she thinks she has a chance to join the team. Thus, the main purpose of the text is to explain why the narrator thinks she might make the basketball team.
Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses solely on basketball and doesn’t mention any other kinds of sports.
Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe aspects of the game of basketball. Instead, it provides the narrator’s reasoning for thinking that she might make her school basketball team.
Choice C is incorrect. Although the narrator explains why she thinks she will be chosen for the basketball team at her school, the text doesn’t go into the general decision-making process or the requirements for being picked for the team.
The more you work on your reading the better your skimming speed develops.
2nd Question
Question: In the late 1800s, Spanish-language newspapers flourished in cities across Texas. San Antonio alone produced eleven newspapers in Spanish between 1890 and 1900. But El Paso surpassed all other cities in the state. This city produced twenty-two newspapers in Spanish during that period. El Paso is located on the border with Mexico and has always had a large population of Spanish speakers. Thus, it is unsurprising that this city became such a rich site for Spanish-language journalism.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To compare Spanish-language newspapers published in Texas today with ones published there during the late 1800s
B) To explain that Spanish-language newspapers thrived in Texas and especially in El Paso during the late 1800s
C) To argue that Spanish-language newspapers published in El Paso influenced the ones published in San Antonio during the late 1800s
D) To explain why Spanish-language newspapers published in Texas were so popular in Mexico during the late 1800s
Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The text begins by stating that there were many Spanishlanguage newspapers in cities across Texas in the late 1800s, citing San Antonio as a city that produced eleven such newspapers. The text then goes on to note that in El Paso, there were twenty-two newspapers published in Spanish in the late 1800s, more than any other Texas city. The text then concludes by explaining that the reason for this large number of Spanish-language newspapers was likely El Paso’s location near Mexico and its large population of Spanish speakers. Therefore, the main purpose of the text is to explain that Spanish-language newspapers thrived in Texas cities, especially in El Paso, in the late 1800s.
Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss Spanish-language newspapers published in Texas today, let alone compare them with newspapers that were published in the 1800s.
Choice C is incorrect. Although the text characterizes El Paso as a particularly rich site for Spanish-language journalism in the late 1800s, the text doesn’t discuss whether newspapers published in El Paso influenced the newspapers published in other cities across Texas, including San Antonio.
Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention whether Spanish-language newspapers published in Texas were also widely read in Mexico. The text only focuses on the popularity of Spanish-language newspapers within Texas, and especially in El Paso.
The more you solve questions like these the better your skimming speed develops.
3rd Question
Question: Chile’s Atacama Desert is one of the driest places on Earth. Mary Beth Wilhelm and other astrobiologists search for life, or its remains, in this harsh place because the desert closely mirrors extreme environment on Mars. The algae and bacteria found in Atacama’s driest regions may offer clues about Martian life. By studying how these and other microorganisms survive such extreme conditions on Earth, Wilhelm’s team hopes to determine whether similar life might have existed on Mars and to develop the best tools to look for evidence of it. Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A) To contrast the conditions in the Atacama Desert with those on Mars
B) To explain why many life-forms cannot survive in the Atacama Desert
C) To indicate why astrobiologists choose to conduct research in the Atacama Desert
D) To describe certain limitations to conducting scientific study in the Atacama Desert
Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence describes a unique location on Earth, the Atacama Desert. The next sentence, which is the underlined sentence, states that the reason why astrobiologists study life, or its remains, in this unique location is that Atacama is a harsh environment that closely resembles the extreme environment of Mars. The remainder of the text explains that the researchers hope their work in Atacama will support inquiry into life on Mars. Thus, the underlined portion functions mainly to indicate why astrobiologists choose to conduct research in the Atacama Desert.
Choice A is incorrect because to contrast two things means to show the differences between them, and the phrase “closely mirrors” in the underlined sentence indicates that the extreme environment in the Atacama Desert is similar to, not different from, that on Mars. This similarity is why, according to the underlined sentence, astrobiologists conduct research in Atacama.
Choice B is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t address forms of life that are unable to survive the harsh environment of the Atacama Desert. Instead, the underlined sentence explains why astrobiologists study life, or its remains, in this environment.
Choice D is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t suggest that the scientific research in the Atacama Desert is limited in any way; instead, the sentence explains that the similarity between the environments of Atacama and Mars is the reason why astrobiologists search for life, or its remains, in Atacama.
Read a sentence before and after of the underlined sentence to decide.
4th Question
Question: More than 60% of journeys in Mexico City occur via public transit, but simply reproducing a feature of the city’s transit system—e.g., its low fares—is unlikely to induce a significant increase in another city’s transit ridership. As Erick Guerra et al. have shown, transportation mode choice in urban areas of Mexico is the product of a complex mix of factors, including population density, the spatial distribution of jobs, and demographic characteristics of individuals. System features do affect ridership, of course, but there is an irreducibly contextual dimension of transportation mode choice.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?
A) It presents an objection to the argument of Guerra et al. about transportation mode choice in urban areas of Mexico.
B) It explains why it is challenging to influence transit ridership solely by altering characteristics of a transit system.
C) It illustrates the claim that a characteristic associated with high transit ridership in Mexico City is not associated with high transit ridership elsewhere.
D) It substantiates the assertion that population density, the spatial distribution of jobs, and demographic characteristics are important factors in transportation mode choice.
Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence explains that reproducing the high ridership of Mexico City’s public transit system in other cities by implementing some of its features, such as its low fares, is unlikely to guarantee significant ridership increases in those cities. The following sentence introduces a study by Guerra et al., whose findings—namely that choice of transportation mode in urban centers in Mexico is influenced by a variety of local contextual factors—support this claim. The first part of the last sentence concedes that features of transportation systems likely do have some effect on ridership numbers, but the underlined portion reiterates the study’s conclusion by stating that there is an “irreducibly contextual dimension” to peoples’ choice to use public transportation: that is, there is a complex mix of local contextual factors—including population density, spatial distribution of jobs, and demographics—whose influence over an urban center’s transit ridership is unique to each location, and it is unlikely that simple changes to transit system characteristics could negate the influence of those contextual factors. Thus, the underlined portion explains why it is challenging to influence transit ridership solely by changing some of a transit system’s characteristics.
Choice A is incorrect. Rather than objecting to the argument of Guerra et al., the underlined portion reiterates their argument by stating that there is an “irreducibly contextual dimension” involved in transportation mode choice; in other words, transportation mode choice in urban areas of Mexico is strongly dependent on contextual factors that are unique to each urban area.
Choice C is incorrect because it mischaracterizes the text’s central claim, which is that transit ridership is the product of a complex mix of contextual factors and transit system features, not that a characteristic associated with Mexico City’s high transit ridership was found to have no association with high transit ridership elsewhere. Additionally, the underlined portion does not illustrate a claim, but instead restates the findings of Guerra et al.
Choice D is incorrect. Although Guerra et al. demonstrate that population density, the spatial distribution of jobs, and demographic characteristics—factors that comprise the “contextual dimension of transportation mode choice”—influence transit ridership, the underlined portion does not substantiate—that is, provide evidence in support of—this assertion. Rather, the underlined portion merely restates a study finding that explains why simply altering a transit system’s features would be unlikely to induce significant increases in transit ridership.
Read two sentences before the underlined sentence to decide.
5th Question
Question: Changes to vegetation cover and other human activities influence carbon and nitrogen levels in soil, though how deep these effects extend is unclear. Hypothesizing that differences in land use lead to differences in carbon and nitrogen levels that are not restricted to the topsoil layer (0–30 cm deep), Chukwuebuka Okolo and colleagues sampled soils across multiple land-use types (e.g., grazing land, cropland, forest) within each of several Ethiopian locations. They found, though, that across land-use types, carbon and nitrogen decreased to comparably low levels beyond depths of 30 cm.
Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?
A) It describes a phenomenon that scientists do not fully understand, explains a research team’s hypothesis about that phenomenon, and then describes a finding that led the team to refine the hypothesis.
B) It introduces an unresolved scientific question, presents a research team’s hypothesis pertaining to that question, and then describes an observation made by the team that conflicts with that hypothesis.
C) It discusses a process that scientists are somewhat unclear about, introduces competing hypotheses about that process, and then explains how a research team concluded that one of those hypotheses is likely correct.
D) It explains a hypothesis that has been the subject of scientific debate, discusses how a research team tested that hypothesis, and then presents data the team collected that validate the hypothesis.
Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall structure of the text. The text begins by explaining that human activities influence carbon and nitrogen levels in soil, but how deeply these effects are seen in the soil remains an unresolved question. Next, the text summarizes Okolo and colleagues’ hypothesis regarding this question—which is that the different effects on carbon and nitrogen levels associated with different types of land use would also be observed below the topsoil layer—and then briefly explains the methods they used to test this hypothesis. Finally, the text states that the researchers found that at depths below the topsoil layer, carbon and nitrogen decreased to similarly low levels across all land-use types, a finding that conflicts with the team’s hypothesis presented earlier in the text. Thus, the text introduces an unresolved scientific question, presents a research team’s hypothesis pertaining to that question, and then describes an observation that the team made that conflicted with their hypothesis.
Choice A is incorrect. Although the text introduces a phenomenon (the fact that human activities influence carbon and nitrogen levels in the soil) that isn’t fully understood by scientists and explains a research team’s hypothesis about the phenomenon, the text doesn’t describe how the team refined their hypothesis when a research finding contradicted it.
Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss a process at all; rather, it poses an unsolved scientific question and presents a hypothesis that Okolo and colleagues tested to answer that question. Moreover, the text only describes one hypothesis; it doesn’t mention any competing hypotheses, nor does it suggest that Okolo’s team was able to determine which hypothesis was correct.
Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t begin by presenting a hypothesis that is under scientific debate; rather, it presents a question that scientists have been unable to answer and then introduces a hypothesis formulated by Okolo and colleagues. While the text does explain how Okolo’s team tested their hypothesis, the text goes on to say that their data conflicted with their hypothesis, not that the data validated, or supported, their hypothesis.
The more you work on your reading the better your skimming speed develops.
6th Question
Question:
Text 1
Ecologists have long wondered how thousands of microscopic phytoplankton species can live together near ocean surfaces competing for the same resources. According to conventional wisdom, one species should emerge after outcompeting the rest. So why do so many species remain? Ecologists’ many efforts to explain this phenomenon still haven’t uncovered a satisfactory explanation.
Text 2
Ecologist Michael Behrenfeld and colleagues have connected phytoplankton’s diversity to their microscopic size. Because these organisms are so tiny, they are spaced relatively far apart from each other in ocean water and, moreover, experience that water as a relatively dense substance. This in turn makes it hard for them to move around and interact with one another. Therefore, says Behrenfeld’s team, direct competition among phytoplankton probably happens much less than previously thought.
Based on the texts, how would Behrenfeld and colleagues (Text 2) most likely respond to the “conventional wisdom” discussed in Text 1?
A) By arguing that it is based on a misconception about phytoplankton species competing with one another
B) By asserting that it fails to recognize that routine replenishment of ocean nutrients prevents competition between phytoplankton species
C) By suggesting that their own findings help clarify how phytoplankton species are able to compete with larger organisms
D) By recommending that more ecologists focus their research on how competition among phytoplankton species is increased with water density
Choice A is the best answer because based on Text 2, it represents how Behrenfeld and colleagues would most likely respond to the “conventional wisdom” discussed in Text 1. The conventional wisdom cited holds the opinion that when there is species diversity within a phytoplankton population, “one species should emerge after outcompeting the rest”—that is, after being so successful in competing for resources that the other species vanish from the population. However, Text 2 explains that according to Behrenfeld and colleagues, phytoplankton are so small and spaced so far apart in the water that there is “much less” direct competition for resources within phytoplankton populations than scientists had previously thought.
Choice B is incorrect because Text 2 never discusses whether routine replenishment of ocean nutrients affects competition between phytoplankton species.
Choice C is incorrect because the interspecies competition discussed in both texts is specifically between phytoplankton species, and neither text considers whether phytoplankton compete for resources with larger nonphytoplankton species.
Choice D is incorrect because according to Text 2, Behrenfeld and colleagues argue that water density decreases, not increases, competition between phytoplankton species.
These are basically time-consuming questions. If you are not a proficient reader then guess the option and move to another question to save time for later difficult questions which will give you more score.
7th Question
Question: In 2014, Amelia Quon and her team at NASA set out to build a helicopter capable of flying on Mars. Because Mars’s atmosphere is only one percent as dense as Earth’s, the air of Mars would not provide enough resistance to the rotating blades of a standard helicopter for the aircraft to stay aloft. For five years, Quon’s team tested designs in a lab that mimicked Mars’s atmospheric conditions. The craft the team ultimately designed can fly on Mars because its blades are longer and rotate faster than those of a helicopter of the same size built for Earth.
According to the text, why would a helicopter built for Earth be unable to fly on Mars?
A) Because Mars and Earth have different atmospheric conditions
B) Because the blades of helicopters built for Earth are too large to work on Mars
C) Because the gravity of Mars is much weaker than the gravity of Earth
D) Because helicopters built for Earth are too small to handle the conditions on Mars
Choice A is the best answer because it presents an explanation about a helicopter that is directly supported by the text. The text states that Mars’s atmosphere is much less dense than Earth’s, and as a result, the air on Mars doesn’t provide the resistance required to support the blades of a helicopter built for Earth and to keep the helicopter aloft. In other words, a helicopter built for Earth can’t fly on Mars because of the differences in the two planets’ atmospheres.
Choice B is incorrect because instead of stating that the blades of helicopters built for Earth are too large to work on Mars, the text indicates that the helicopter built to fly on Mars actually has even longer blades than a helicopter built for Earth.
Choice C is incorrect because the text never addresses the role of gravity on Mars or on Earth; instead, it focuses on atmospheric conditions.
Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that helicopters built for Earth are too small to operate in the conditions on Mars. In fact, the text states that the size of the helicopter built to fly on Mars is the same size as a helicopter built for Earth, even though it has longer blades that rotate faster.
Focus on words of reasoning like because, the reason, believe, and so on. Then read the sentence where you notice reasoning words to find the answer.
8th Question
Question: In West Africa, jalis have traditionally been keepers of information about family histories and records of important events. They have often served as teachers and advisers, too. New technologies may have changed some aspects of the role today, but jalis continue to be valued for knowing and protecting their peoples’ stories.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) Even though there have been some changes in their role, jalis continue to preserve their communities’ histories.
B) Although jalis have many roles, many of them like teaching best.
C) Jalis have been entertaining the people within their communities for centuries.
D) Technology can now do some of the things jalis used to be responsible for.
Choice A is the best answer because it best states the main idea of the text. According to the text, jalis’ traditional role has been to maintain information about families’ histories and significant events. The text goes on to say that although technological changes have altered jalis’ role somewhat, jalis are still valued for preserving the histories of their communities.
Choice B is incorrect because the text says nothing about jalis’ views of the various tasks they perform. There is no information to support the idea that many jalis prefer teaching to other tasks.
Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe jalis as being sources of entertainment. Rather, jalis are presented as valued sources of knowledge. Additionally, the text gives no indication of how long jalis have been serving their communities.
Choice D is incorrect because the main focus of the text is on jalis’ role and their continued value despite the effects of technology, not on what technology can now do. Although the text indicates that jalis’ role has changed as a result of technological changes, the text doesn’t present any specific information about technology performing tasks that jalis once performed.
The more you work on your reading the better your skimming speed develops.
9th Question
Question: In 1934 physicist Eugene Wigner posited the existence of a crystal consisting entirely of electrons in a honeycomb-like structure. The so-called Wigner crystal remained largely conjecture, however, until Feng Wang and colleagues announced in 2021 that they had captured an image of one. The researchers trapped electrons between two semiconductors and then cooled the apparatus, causing the electrons to settle into a crystalline structure. By inserting an ultrathin sheet of graphene above the crystal, the researchers obtained an impression—the first visual confirmation of the Wigner crystal.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) Researchers have obtained the most definitive evidence to date of the existence of the Wigner crystal.
B) Researchers have identified an innovative new method for working with unusual crystalline structures.
C) Graphene is the most important of the components required to capture an image of a Wigner crystal.
D) It’s difficult to acquire an image of a Wigner crystal because of the crystal’s honeycomb structure.
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. According to the text, Eugene Wigner hypothesized that a crystal could exist that would be composed of electrons and have a honeycomb-like shape. The text goes on to say that the existence of the Wigner crystal remained unconfirmed until Feng Wang and colleagues were able to make an impression of
one using two semiconductors and an ultrathin sheet of graphene. Thus, the main idea is that researchers have obtained the most definitive evidence to date of the existence of the Wigner crystal.
Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses on one kind of crystal—the Wigner crystal—and doesn’t discuss crystalline structures in general. And although the text conveys that Wang and colleagues figured out a way to capture an image of a Wigner crystal, it doesn’t address the idea of applying this approach to other types of crystals.
Choice C is incorrect because the text describes in general the process Wang and colleagues followed to obtain an impression of the Wigner crystal; it doesn’t address the relative importance of each component in that process.
Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t state that researchers had a hard time getting an impression of the Wigner crystal because of its honeycomb structure. Nothing in the text indicates why it took so long to prove the existence of this crystal or take an impression of it.
Look for opposing words like however, but, though, although, and so on. Then read from there to find the answer.
10th Question

Question: Considering a large sample of companies, economics experts Maria Guadalupe, Julie Wulf, and Raghuram Rajan assessed the number of managers and leaders from different departments who reported directly to a chief executive officer (CEO). According to the researchers, the findings suggest that across the years analyzed, there was a growing interest among CEOs in connecting with more departments in their companies.
Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion?
A) The average numbers of managers and department leaders reporting directly to their CEO didn’t fluctuate from the 1991–1995 period to the 2001–2008 period.
B) The average number of managers reporting directly to their CEO was highest in the 1996–2001 period.
C) The average number of department leaders reporting directly to their CEO was greater than the average number of managers reporting directly to their CEO in each of the three periods studied.
D) The average number of department leaders reporting directly to their CEO rose over the three periods studied.
Choice D is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that support the researchers’ conclusion that there is a growing interest among CEOs in connecting with more departments in their companies. The graph shows the average number of individuals reporting directly to CEOs during three different time periods: the individuals are divided into managers and department leaders.
The average number of department leaders directly reporting to their CEO during the 1991–1995 period was slightly more than three, during the 1996–2001 period it was four, and during the 2001–2008 period it was almost seven. Thus, the average number of department leaders reporting directly to their CEO rose over the three periods studied, which suggests that CEOs were connecting with more
departments.
Choice A is incorrect because the average number of managers and department leaders reporting directly to their CEO rose for both categories between the 1991–1995 and 2001–2008 periods; thus, it isn’t true that the average numbers didn’t fluctuate.
Choice B is incorrect because the average number of managers reporting directly to their CEO was highest in the 2001–2008 period, not in the 1996–2001 period.
Choice C is incorrect. Although it correctly describes a feature of the graph, the observation that more department leaders than managers are reporting to CEOs does not by itself address the question of whether CEOs are connecting with more departments over time—to address that question, one needs to know whether the number of department leaders reporting to CEOs is increasing over time.
Another time-taking question, so in a real exam, focus on the ranking of it. The higher the rank, the more marks you will get out of it then do it. If you are running against time and it is a lower-rank question then guess the answer.
11th Question
Question: In the twentieth century, ethnographers made a concerted effort to collect Mexican American folklore, but they did not always agree about that folklore’s origins. Scholars such as Aurelio Espinosa claimed that Mexican American folklore derived largely from the folklore of Spain, which ruled Mexico and what is now the southwestern United States from the sixteenth to early nineteenth centuries. Scholars such as Américo Paredes, by contrast, argued that while some Spanish influence is undeniable, Mexican American folklore is mainly the product of the ongoing interactions of various cultures in Mexico and the United States.
Which finding, if true, would most directly support Paredes’s argument?
A) The folklore that the ethnographers collected included several songs written in the form of a décima, a type of poem originating in late sixteenth-century Spain.
B) Much of the folklore that the ethnographers collected had similar elements from region to region.
C) Most of the folklore that the ethnographers collected was previously unknown to scholars.
D) Most of the folklore that the ethnographers collected consisted of corridos—ballads about history and social life—of a clearly recent origin.
Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support Paredes’s argument about the origin of Mexican American folklore. The text describes a disagreement among scholars about whether Mexican American folklore mostly derived from the folklore of Spain (the view held by Espinosa and others) or originated in Mexico and the United States through ongoing cultural interactions there (the view held by Paredes and others). If Mexican American folklore collected in the twentieth century mostly consists of ballads about history and social life that originated recently, then that would support Paredes’s argument by suggesting that the folklore mostly arose after Spanish rule ended in the early nineteenth century and that the folklore reflects cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States rather than traditions from Spain.
Choice A is incorrect because the inclusion of songs influenced by sixteenth-century Spanish poetry among Mexican American folklore collected in the twentieth century would not support Paredes’s view that the folklore was the result of cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States rather than an offshoot of Spanish folklore. If anything, the presence of such songs among the folklore collected in the twentieth century would weaken Paredes’s argument, since it would reflect the influence of Spanish culture on the folklore.
Choice B is incorrect because the mere presence of similarities in Mexican American folklore across regions would not be sufficient to draw a conclusion about where the folklore originated, let alone to support Paredes’s argument that the folklore reflects various cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States. In fact, Paredes would likely expect there to be regional variations in folklore as different cultures have interacted in different places.
Choice C is incorrect because scholars’ previous ignorance of the folklore would have no bearing on Paredes’s argument that Mexican American folklore mostly reflects cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States; the folklore’s actual origins exist regardless of the scholars’ awareness.
Look for words that give the same sense as ‘argument’ and read it to find the option.
12th Question
Question: In the early nineteenth century, some Euro-American farmers in the northeastern United States used agricultural techniques developed by the Haudenosaunee (Iroquois) people centuries earlier, but it seems that few of those farmers had actually seen Haudenosaunee farms firsthand. Barring the possibility of several farmers of the same era independently developing techniques that the Haudenosaunee people had already invented, these facts most strongly suggest that ____________.
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) those farmers learned the techniques from other people who were more directly influenced by Haudenosaunee practices.
B) the crops typically cultivated by Euro-American farmers in the northeastern United States were not well suited to Haudenosaunee farming techniques.
C) Haudenosaunee farming techniques were widely used in regions outside the northeastern United States.
D) Euro-American farmers only began to recognize the benefits of Haudenosaunee farming techniques late in the nineteenth century.
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Euro-American farmers’ use of Haudenosaunee agricultural techniques. According to the text, some Euro-American farmers were using these techniques in the early nineteenth century despite few of the farmers having seen Haudenosaunee farms. One explanation for these facts might be that the farmers developed techniques on their own that already had been invented centuries earlier by the Haudenosaunee people, but the text explicitly bars, or rules out, this explanation. If Euro-American farmers didn’t learn these techniques from direct observation of Haudenosaunee practices and didn’t invent the techniques independently, then the most logical explanation is that they learned the techniques from other people who were more directly influenced by Haudenosaunee practices than the farmers themselves were. Once they learned about Haudenosaunee agricultural practices, Euro-American farmers could then apply those practices to their own farming.
Choice B is incorrect because the fact that some Euro-American farmers in the northeastern United States were using Haudenosaunee techniques suggests that the techniques were likely useful for the crops the farmers raised, not that the crops typically cultivated by the farmers were not well suited to Haudenosaunee farming techniques. If the farmers’ crops were ill suited to the techniques, it’s unlikely that the farmers would have used those techniques.
Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates only that Haudenosaunee agricultural techniques were used by Euro-American farmers in the northeastern United States, not that these techniques were widely used outside this region.
Choice D is incorrect because the text states that some Euro-American farmers were using Haudenosaunee farming techniques early in the nineteenth century. This suggests that some Euro-American farmers were beginning to recognize the benefits of these techniques near the start of the century, not that such farmers only began to recognize the benefits of the techniques much later.
Skim through the last line to find the correct option. Work on your skimming skills.
13th Question
Question: If some artifacts recovered from excavations of the settlement of Kuulo Kataa, in modern Ghana, date from the thirteenth century CE, that may lend credence to claims that the settlement was founded before or around that time. There is other evidence, however, strongly supporting a fourteenth century CE founding date for Kuulo Kataa. If both the artifact dates and the fourteenth century CE founding date are correct, that would imply that ____________.
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) artifacts from the fourteenth century CE are more commonly recovered than are artifacts from the thirteenth century CE.
B) the artifacts originated elsewhere and eventually reached Kuulo Kataa through trade or migration.
C) Kuulo Kataa was founded by people from a different region than had previously been assumed.
D) excavations at Kuulo Kataa may have inadvertently damaged some artifacts dating to the fourteenth century CE.
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of artifacts and Kuulo Kataa’s founding date. If it were true both that Kuulo Kataa was founded in the fourteenth century CE and that artifacts found in excavations of the settlement are from the thirteenth century CE, it would be reasonable to conclude that the artifacts weren’t created in the Kuulo Kataa settlement. That would suggest, then, that the artifacts originated somewhere else and eventually reached the settlement through trading or as people migrated.
Choice A is incorrect because the existence of thirteenth-century CE artifacts recovered during excavations of a settlement founded in the fourteenth century CE isn’t logically connected to artifacts from one century being more commonly recovered than artifacts from another century. Rather than suggesting anything about how frequently artifacts from different times are found, the existence of artifacts confirmed as predating the settlement’s founding suggests that those items arrived in Kuulo Kataa during or after its establishment.
Choice C is incorrect because the text focuses on time periods and says nothing about which region the founders of Kuulo Kataa have been thought to come from; similarly, the text doesn’t suggest anything about where the thirteenth-century CE artifacts originated other than not from Kuulo Kataa. Therefore, it isn’t logical to conclude that the mere existence of artifacts confirmed as predating the Kuulo Kataa settlement suggests that the founders of the settlement came from a particular region other than one previously assumed.
Choice D is incorrect because the existence of artifacts from the thirteenth century CE at a site dated to the fourteenth century CE doesn’t imply that fourteenth-century objects were damaged during excavations. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that any objects were damaged; rather, the existence of artifacts confirmed as predating the settlement’s founding suggests that those items were brought to Kuulo Kataa during or after its establishment.
Skim through the last line to find the correct option. Work on your skimming skills.
14th Question
Question: A team of biologists led by Jae-Hoon Jung, Antonio D. Barbosa, and Stephanie Hutin investigated the mechanism that allows Arabidopsis thaliana (thale cress) plants to accelerate flowering at high temperatures. They replaced the protein ELF3 in the plants with a similar protein found in another species (stiff brome) that, unlike A. thaliana, displays no acceleration in flowering with increased temperature. A comparison of unmodified A. thaliana plants with the altered plants showed no difference in flowering at 22° Celsius, but at 27° Celsius, the unmodified plants exhibited accelerated flowering while the altered ones did not, which suggests that _____________.
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) temperature-sensitive accelerated flowering is unique to A. thaliana.
B) A. thaliana increases ELF3 production as temperatures rise.
C) ELF3 enables A. thaliana to respond to increased temperatures.
D) temperatures of at least 22° Celsius are required for A. thaliana to flower.
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of accelerated flowering in A. thaliana plants. The text indicates that A. thaliana plants show accelerated flowering at high temperatures. To investigate the mechanism for this accelerated flowering, biologists replaced the ELF3 protein in one group of A. thaliana plants with a similar protein found in another plant species that doesn’t show accelerated flowering. The team then compared these modified plants to A. thaliana plants that retained their original ELF3 protein. The text states that the two samples of plants showed no difference in flowering at 22° Celsius, but at 27° Celsius the unaltered plants with ELF3 showed accelerated flowering while the plants without ELF3 didn’t. If accelerated flowering at the higher temperature occurred in the A. thaliana plants with ELF3 but not in the plants without the protein, then ELF3 likely enables A. thaliana to respond to increased temperatures.
Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention whether any plants other than A. thaliana and stiff brome show temperature-sensitive flowering, so there is no support for the idea that this type of flowering is unique to A. thaliana.
Choice B is incorrect because the text discusses the effects of ELF3 and not the production of it. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that the amount of ELF3 in A. thaliana varies with temperature.
Choice D is incorrect. While the text states that there was no difference in the flowering of modified and unmodified A. thaliana plants at 22° Celsius, there’s no suggestion that A. thaliana only begins to flower at 22° Celsius; the text doesn’t mention a specific temperature threshold required for A. thaliana flowering.
Skim through the last line to find the correct option. Work on your skimming skills.
15th Question
Question: A member of the Cherokee Nation, Mary Golda Ross is renowned for her contributions to NASA’s Planetary Flight Handbook, which _________ detailed mathematical guidance for missions to Mars and Venus.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) provided
B) having provided
C) to provide
D) providing
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. Relative clauses, such as the one beginning with “which,” require a finite verb, a verb that can function as the main verb of a clause. This choice correctly supplies the clause with the finite past tense verb “provided.”
Choice B is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “having provided” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb.
Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to provide” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb.
Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “providing” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb.
You should learn Gerund, Infinitive, Participles, and Tense to solve questions like this.
16th Question
Question: To survive when water is scarce, embryos inside African turquoise killifish eggs ___________ a dormant state known as diapause. In this state, embryonic development is paused for as long as two years—longer than the life span of an adult killifish.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) enter
B) to enter
C) having entered
D) entering
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to perform the action of the subject (in this case, “embryos”), and this choice supplies the clause with the finite present tense verb “enter” to indicate how the embryos achieve diapause.
Choice B is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to enter” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.
Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “having entered” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.
Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “entering” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.
You should learn Gerund, Infinitive, and Participles to solve questions like this.
17th Question
Question: Formed in 1967 to foster political and economic stability within the Asia-Pacific region, the Association of Southeast Asian Nations was originally made up of five members: Thailand, the Philippines, Singapore, Malaysia, and Indonesia. By the end of the 1990s, the organization ____________ its initial membership.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) has doubled
B) had doubled
C) doubles
D) will double
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the past perfect verb “had doubled” properly indicates that the doubling of the organization’s initial membership occurred during a specific period before the present (between the organization’s founding in 1967 and the end of the 1990s).
Choice A is incorrect because the present perfect verb “has doubled” doesn’t indicate that the organization’s doubling of its initial membership occurred during a specific period in the past.
Choice C is incorrect because the present tense verb “doubles” doesn’t indicate that the organization’s doubling of its initial membership occurred during a specific period in the past.
Choice D is incorrect because the future tense verb “will double” doesn’t indicate that the organization’s doubling of its initial membership occurred during a specific period in the past.
The whole paragraph talks about Past events, so better to use something that is way before ‘Past Perfect.’ Click here to learn more.
18th Question
Question: The intense pressure found in the deep ocean can affect the structure of proteins in fish’s cells, distorting the proteins’ shape. The chemical trimethylamine N-oxide (TMAO) counters this effect, ensuring that proteins retain their original ____________ is found in high concentrations in the cells of the deepest-dwelling fish.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) configurations. TMAO
B) configurations TMAO
C) configurations, TMAO
D) configurations and TMAO
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period after “configurations” is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“The intense… configurations”) and another (“TMAO…fish”). The supplementary phrase (“ensuring…configurations”) modifies the main clause of the first sentence (“The chemical…effect”), and “TMAO” is the subject of the second sentence.
Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences (“The intense…configurations” and “TMAO…fish”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences.
Choice D is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join sentences.
Start working on your punctuation.
19th Question
Question: Food and the sensation of taste are central to Monique Truong’s novels. In The Book of Salt, for example, the exiled character of Bình connects to his native Saigon through the food he prepares, while in Bitter in the Mouth, the character of Linda ___________ a form of synesthesia whereby the words she hears evoke tastes.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) experienced
B) had experienced
C) experiences
D) will be experiencing
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb “experiences” is consistent with the other present tense verbs (e.g., “connects” and “prepares”) used to describe the events in Truong’s novels. Furthermore, it’s conventional to use the present tense when discussing a literary work.
Choice A is incorrect because the past tense verb “experienced” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the events in Truong’s novels.
Choice B is incorrect because the past perfect tense verb “had experienced” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the events in Truong’s novels.
Choice D is incorrect because the future progressive tense verb “will be experiencing” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the events in Truong’s novels.
The paragraph and the blank sentence are in the Present Tense. Learn Tense, the correct answer is in Present Simple Tense.
20th Question
Question: Inventor John Friedman created a prototype of the first flexible straw by inserting a screw into a paper straw and, using dental floss, binding the straw tightly around the _____________ When the floss and screw were removed, the resulting corrugations in the paper allowed the straw to bend easily over the edge of a glass.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) screw’s thread’s.
B) screws’ threads.
C) screw’s threads.
D) screws threads’.
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural and possessive nouns. The singular possessive noun “screw’s” and the plural noun “threads” correctly indicate that there is only one screw and it has multiple threads.
Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun “threads,” not the singular possessive noun “thread’s.”
Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun “screw’s,” not the plural possessive noun “screws’.”
Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the singular possessive noun “screw’s” and the plural noun “threads,” not the plural noun “screws” or the plural possessive noun “threads.’”
You should learn Possessive Nouns and punctuation.
21st Question
Question: In 1943, in the midst of World War II, mathematics professor Grace Hopper was recruited by the US military to help the war effort by solving complex equations. Hopper’s subsequent career would involve more than just ___________ as a pioneering computer programmer, Hopper would help usher in the digital age.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) equations, though:
B) equations, though,
C) equations. Though,
D) equations though
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation to mark boundaries between supplements and clauses. The comma after “equations” is used to separate the independent clause (“Hopper’s… equation”) from the supplementary adverb phrase “though.” The colon after “though” is used to mark the boundary between the clause ending with “though” and the following clause (“as…age”). A colon used in this way introduces information that illustrates or explains information that has come before it. In this case, the colon after “though” introduces the following explanation of how Hopper’s subsequent career would involve more than just solving equations: she would become a pioneering computer programmer.
Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two independent clauses (“Hopper’s…though” and “as…age”) such as these.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in an illogical sequence of sentences. Placing the period after “equations” and beginning the next sentence with “Though” illogically suggests that the following information (that Hopper would help usher in the digital age) is contrary to the information in the previous sentence (Hopper’s subsequent career would involve more than just solving equations). Instead, the information that follows supports the information from the previous sentence by explaining how her work and influence extended beyond solely solving equations.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two independent clauses (“Hopper’s…though” and “as…age”) are fused without punctuation.
You should learn Punctuation.
22nd Question
Question: In 1453, English King Henry VI became unfit to rule after falling gravely ill. As a result, Parliament appointed Richard, Third Duke of York, who had a strong claim to the English throne, to rule as Lord Protector. Upon recovering two years later, _____________ forcing an angered Richard from the royal court and precipitating a series of battles later known as the Wars of the Roses.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) Henry resumed his reign,
B) the reign of Henry resumed,
C) Henry’s reign resumed,
D) it was Henry who resumed his reign,
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice ensures that the introductory phrase “upon recovering two years later” appears immediately before the noun it modifies (“Henry”), clearly establishing that Henry recovered two years later.
Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “the reign of Henry” immediately after the introductory phrase illogically suggests that the reign of Henry recovered two years later.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “Henry’s reign” immediately after the introductory phrase illogically suggests that Henry’s reign recovered two years later.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the function word “it” immediately after the introductory phrase illogically suggests that “it” recovered two years later.
Read the paragraph and find the best phrase. Learn Sentence Structure and Parts of Speech to find the best solution.
23rd Question
Question: Although novels and poems are considered distinct literary forms, many authors have created hybrid works that incorporate elements of both. Bernardine Evaristo’s The Emperor’s Babe, __________ is a verse novel, a book-length narrative complete with characters and a plot but conveyed in short, crisp lines of poetry rather than prose.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) by contrast,
B) consequently,
C) secondly,
D) for example,
Choice D is the best answer. “For example” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that The Emperor’s Babe is a novel conveyed in lines of poetry—exemplifies the claim in the previous sentence about hybrid works that incorporate elements of both novels and poems.
Choice A is incorrect because “by contrast” illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the claim about hybrid works in the previous sentence. Instead, the information demonstrates that Evaristo’s novel is an example of a hybrid work.
Choice B is incorrect because “consequently” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a consequence, or result, of the claim about hybrid works in the previous sentence. Instead, the information demonstrates that Evaristo’s novel is an example of a hybrid work.
Choice C is incorrect because “secondly” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second, separate claim from the previous sentence’s claim about hybrid works. Instead, the information demonstrates that Evaristo’s novel is an example of a hybrid work.
Read the paragraph and find the most suitable word for it. Work on your vocabulary skills.
24th Question
Question: At two weeks old, the time their critical socialization period begins, wolves can smell but cannot yet see or hear. Domesticated dogs, ____________ can see, hear, and smell by the end of two weeks. This relative lack of sensory input may help explain why wolves behave so differently around humans than dogs do: from a very young age, wolves are more wary and less exploratory.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) in other words,
B) for instance,
C) by contrast,
D) accordingly,
Choice C is the best answer. “By contrast” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that dogs can see, hear, and smell by the end of two weeks—contrasts with the preceding information (that wolves can smell but not see or hear at the same age).
Choice A is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the information about domesticated dogs in this sentence paraphrases the information about wolves in the previous sentence. Instead, the information about dogs contrasts with what came before.
Choice B is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the information about domesticated dogs in this sentence exemplifies the information about wolves in the previous sentence. Instead, the information about dogs contrasts with what came before.
Choice D is incorrect because “accordingly” illogically signals that the information about domesticated dogs in this sentence is in accordance with, or results from, the information about wolves in the previous sentence. Instead, the information about dogs contrasts with what came before.
Read the paragraph and find the most suitable word for it. Work on your vocabulary skills.
25th Question
Question: Researchers Helena Mihaljević-Brandt, Lucía Santamaría, and Marco Tullney report that while mathematicians may have traditionally worked alone, evidence points to a shift in the opposite direction. ______________ mathematicians are choosing to collaborate with their peers—a trend illustrated by a rise in the number of mathematics publications credited to multiple authors.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Similarly,
B) For this reason,
C) Furthermore,
D) Increasingly,
Choice D is the best answer. “Increasingly” logically signals that the claim in this sentence—that mathematicians are collaborating with their peers—marks a change relative to what was traditionally done. As the previous sentence explains, while mathematicians may have traditionally worked alone, evidence points to a shift in the opposite direction. The claim describes the shift: a rise in collaboration.
Choice A is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is similar to, but separate from, the previous claim about the shift away from mathematicians working alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in collaboration elaborates on the previous claim, describing the shift.
Choice B is incorrect because “for this reason” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is caused by the previous claim about the shift away from mathematicians working alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in collaboration elaborates on the previous claim, describing the shift.
Choice C is incorrect because “furthermore” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is in addition to the previous claim about the shift away from mathematicians working alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in collaboration elaborates on the previous claim, describing the shift.
Read the paragraph and find the most suitable word for it. Work on your vocabulary skills.
26th Question
Question: While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Pterosaurs were flying reptiles that existed millions of years ago.
• In a 2021 study, Anusuya Chinsamy-Turan analyzed fragments of pterosaur jawbones located in the Sahara Desert.
• She was initially unsure if the bones belonged to juvenile or adult pterosaurs.
• She used advanced microscope techniques to determine that the bones had few growth lines relative to the bones of fully grown pterosaurs.
• She concluded that the bones belonged to juveniles.
The student wants to present the study and its findings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) In 2021, Chinsamy-Turan studied pterosaur jawbones and was initially unsure if the bones belonged to juveniles or adults.
B) Pterosaur jawbones located in the Sahara Desert were the focus of a 2021 study.
C) In a 2021 study, Chinsamy-Turan used advanced microscope techniques to analyze the jawbones of pterosaurs, flying reptiles that existed millions of years ago.
D) In a 2021 study, Chinsamy-Turan determined that pterosaur jawbones located in the Sahara Desert had few growth lines relative to the bones of fully grown pterosaurs and thus belonged to juveniles.
Choice D is the best answer. The sentence presents both the study and its findings, noting the study’s date and the researcher’s name as well as describing what the researcher determined about the jawbones and how she determined it.
Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence describes the study and the researcher’s initial assessment, it doesn’t present the study’s findings.
Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence describes the study and its focus, it doesn’t present the study’s findings or the name of the researcher who conducted it.
Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the study’s methodology and provides information about pterosaurs, it doesn’t present the study’s findings.
Summarise and find the most suitable option.
27th Question
Question: While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• African American women played prominent roles in the Civil Rights Movement, including at the famous 1963 March on Washington.
• Civil rights activist Anna Hedgeman, one of the march’s organizers, was a political adviser who had worked for President Truman.
• Civil rights activist Daisy Bates was a well-known journalist and advocate for school desegregation.
• Hedgeman worked behind the scenes to make sure a woman was included in the lineup of speakers at the march.
• Bates was the sole woman to speak, delivering a brief but memorable address to the cheering crowd.
The student wants to compare the two women’s contributions to the March on Washington. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) Hedgeman and Bates contributed to the march in different ways; Bates, for example, delivered a brief but memorable address.
B) Hedgeman worked in politics and helped organize the march, while Bates was a journalist and school desegregation advocate.
C) Although Hedgeman worked behind the scenes to make sure a woman speaker was included, Bates was the sole woman to speak at the march.
D) Many African American women, including Bates and Hedgeman, fought for civil rights, but only one spoke at the march.
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence compares the two women’s contributions to the march: Hedgeman worked behind the scenes to make sure a woman speaker was included, whereas Bates actually spoke at the event.
Choice A is incorrect. While it acknowledges that the two women both contributed to the march, it doesn’t indicate what Hedgeman did, so no comparison is made.
Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about the two women, it doesn’t mention anything about Bates’s contribution to the march.
Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that the two women both fought for civil rights, it doesn’t compare their individual contributions to the march.
Summarise and find the most suitable option.
Hoping you scored well in the SAT Question and Answer Test (Reading and Writing Module 1st). If not, try other tests then come back later to give it another shot to see, “Have you improved or not?”That is how you will take the final SAT exam. The explanation of answers makes it easy to learn and progress. You must try to work on your speed and spend less time on the beginning and more on the later questions. This is the 4th Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 1st.
Either you can take the 5th Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing or the 4th Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 2nd.
- SAT Test 4th (Reading and Writing Module 2nd)
- SAT Test 4th (Math Module 1st)
- SAT Test 5th (Reading and Writing Module 1st)
- SAT Test 3rd (Reading and Writing Module 1st)
I wish you the best in your career. Please fill out the contact form if you have any queries or feedback.