FREE SAT EXAM PREPARATION: READING AND WRITING TEST
Have you taken the Module 1st of the SAT Reading and Writing Test? I hope you have finished the whole test. If yes, then this 2nd Module of SAT is for you. Our test format is similar to the final SAT Examination. You take the SAT Test Reading and Writing Module Second to practice your skills. The best part is that you practice free within the time limit, and there are explanations of the correct answers and tips and tricks to get a perfect score on the SAT.
ABOUT THE SAT MODULES
The SAT is divided into four modules. There are two categories with each divided two modules into. The first category is “Reading and Writing” with two modules. The second category is “Math” with two modules. The one, you will do below is SAT Practice Test Reading and Writing Module 2nd.
The first module has questions ranging from easy to difficult, but the second module only contains difficult questions. If you want to take some other SATs, visit the links below.
- 1st Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 1st Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
SAT READING AND WRITING MODULE 2ND
The second module of the SAT reading and writing also contains four segments: Craft and Structure, Information and Ideas, Standard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas. The questions in Module 2nd are only difficult. In a real SAT exam, you must answer 27 questions within 32 minutes. You will find the same time structure here in this Practice Test.
Instructions for the SAT Real-Time Exam
- Go Back-and-Forth: You will see an arrow in the right or left corner of the slide. Click to move forward or backward.
- Interaction: At the top right corner, you will see a press button that tells you there are some interactive components in the slide. Click the press button to find out.
- Timer: On the top of the slide, you will see the timer, we have divided the time based on the average of the module 2nd. (The 32 minutes are equally divided into 27 questions’ time.) It is best to note the time before and after finishing the practice test to measure, “Was it within 32 minutes or not?”
- Image: You can click on graph, table, or other images to expand and see it on full screen.
- Mute: You can click on the speaker button to mute the audio.
- Mobile: You cannot take the real exam on mobile, but our practice exam you can give on mobile.
- Tips: This article will help you learn more about the SAT Exams. SAT: EVERYTHING ABOUT THE SAT
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SAT READING AND WRITING QUESTION SOLUTIONS WITH EXPLANATION
Do not open the tabs before finishing the practice test above! We have compiled all the solutions and their explanations here for your convenience. We will also give you some tips or advice to help you understand them better. You’ll see ‘why this answer is correct’ and ‘why this is incorrect.’
Reading and Writing Answers and Explanations
The color green shows the correct answer, red shows the incorrect answer, and blue shows tips or tricks.
1st Question
Choice C is the best answer because as used in the text “reaching across to” most nearly means stretching toward. The text begins with Mrs. Wilkins stating that she wants to have one of the oranges that she’s admiring. The text then indicates that Mrs. Wilkins, staying where she is, holds out a big orange to her friend. This context suggests that when the text describes Mrs. Wilkins as reaching across to the bowl of oranges, it means that she is stretching toward the bowl.
Choice A is incorrect because the text never suggests that Mrs. Wilkins is joining with, or becoming attached to, the bowl of oranges. Rather, the text indicates that she is stretching toward the bowl so she can pick out oranges for herself and her friend Rose to eat.
Choice B is incorrect because the text never suggests that Mrs. Wilkins is gaining on, or overtaking in a competition or race, the bowl of oranges. The text suggests instead that the bowl is sitting still on a surface and that Mrs. Wilkins is extending her arm toward the bowl so she can pick out oranges for herself and her friend Rose to eat.
Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Mrs. Wilkins is arriving at the bowl of oranges. In fact, the text states that Mrs. Wilkins stays where she is when reaching across to the bowl,
meaning that she remains at a distance from it.
Don’t just focus on the underlined phrase, read here and there to better understand the content.
2nd Question
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the fossil deposit. In this context, “obtain” means gain or acquire. According to the text, a team of paleontologists has found fossils that are very well preserved. For this reason, the text suggests, the paleontologists have been able to gain detailed information from the fossils, such as the color patterns of the life forms that left them behind.
Choice A is incorrect because “occupy” means engage or inhabit, neither of which would make sense in context. It’s unclear what it would mean for detailed information revealed by fossils to be engaged or inhabited.
Choice B is incorrect because the text gives no indication that the paleontologists wanted to “hoard,” or collect and hide, the detailed information revealed by the well-preserved fossils.
Choice C is incorrect because the text gives no indication that the paleontologists wanted to “reserve,” or withhold, the detailed information revealed by the well-preserved fossils.
Read a sentence before and after of the underlined sentence.
3rd Question
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of how the flow of information between two regions of the brain may affect the ease of people’s decision-making. In this context, “reduced” means decreased. The text presents the finding from a team of neuroeconomists that decision-making may be connected to communication between the prefrontal
cortex and the parietal cortex. In presenting this finding, the text suggests a contrast between people who tend to be more decisive and people who make decisions more slowly. According to the text, people tend to be more decisive when the flow of information between the two brain regions is intensified, or strengthened. On the other hand, this context suggests that people make choices
more slowly when the flow of information between the two brain regions is decreased.
Choice B is incorrect because “evaluated” means assessed, which wouldn’t make sense in context. According to the text, people tend to be more decisive when the flow of information between two brain regions is intensified or strengthened. This suggests that people’s ease of decision-making varies based on the rate of information traveling between the regions, not based on an effort to assess
the information.
Choice C is incorrect because “determined” means judged or influenced, neither of which would make sense in context. According to the text, people tend to be more decisive when the flow of information between two brain regions is intensified, or strengthened. This suggests that people’s ease of decision making varies based on the rate of information traveling between the regions, not based on an effort to judge or influence the information.
Choice D is incorrect because “acquired” means developed or attained, neither of which would make sense in context. According to the text, people tend to be more decisive when the flow of information between two brain regions is intensified or strengthened. This suggests that people’s ease of decision-making varies based on the rate of information traveling between the regions, not based on the
development or attainment of the information.
The last part of the paragraph mostly shows the conclusion, so skim through the whole paragraph.
4th Question
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the significance of the War of 1812 in British historical memory. In this context, “tenuous” means vulnerable or uncertain. The text indicates that the The War of 1812 was both smaller, and less prominent, than the conflict with France, and resulted in no significant geopolitical changes. These details imply that the The War of 1812 is less likely than other British historical events to be remembered, giving the War of 1812 a tenuous place in British historical memory.
Choice B is incorrect because in this context “enduring” would mean lasting or durable, but the text describes the War of 1812 as being overshadowed by, and smaller than, the simultaneous conflict with France. This seems to conflict with the notion that the War of 1812 has an enduring place in British historical memory.
Choice C is incorrect because in this context “contentious” would mean likely to cause disagreement, and while there likely are contentious issues related to the War of 1812, nothing in the text discusses or implies any such disagreement.
Choice D is incorrect because in this context “conspicuous” would mean obvious, but the text describes the War of 1812 as being overshadowed by, and smaller then, the simultaneous conflict with France. Rather than suggesting that the War of 1812 has a conspicuous place in British historical memory, these descriptions suggest that its place is not particularly obvious.
Read the first and second sentences then skim through all.
5th Question
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Minoan bull-leaping rituals. In this context, “defend” means support in the face of an argument. The overall focus of the text is on the difficulty of determining what bull-leaping rituals meant to the Minoans, about whom, the text indicates, we know very little. The text states that because of this scarcity of information, assertions about the meaning of the rituals, which took place a very long time ago (in the second millennium BCE), are highly likely to be based on speculation and guesswork. This context suggests that claims about the meaning of the rituals are difficult to successfully support, or defend.
Choice A is incorrect because “imagine” in this context would mean form a mental image of something. Although it’s possible to imagine what Minoan bull-leaping rituals might have looked like, the focus of the text isn’t on how the rituals looked but rather on claims about them, which the text suggests are difficult to support because very little is known about the Minoans.
Choice B is incorrect because “summarize” in this context would mean recap or outline, neither of which makes sense. The text indicates that claims about the significance of Minoan bull-leaping
rituals will inevitably rely on speculation and guesswork because very little is known about the Minoans. This suggests that claims about the Minoan rituals are difficult to support in the face of argument, not that they’re difficult to recap or outline.
Choice D is incorrect because “adjust” in this context would mean modify or correct. Although a claim about a ritual’s meaning could be modified or corrected based on newly discovered evidence, the text doesn’t focus on any specific claims made about the significance of Minoan bull-leaping rituals.
Rather, the text focuses on the feasibility of making valid claims about the rituals in general, suggesting that the scarcity of information about the Minoans makes it difficult to support any claims about the rituals.
Read before and after the underlined sentence.
6th Question
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of damage to viburnum plants. In this context, “healthy” would mean not distressed or diseased. The text states that insect damage may cause viburnum plants to be discolored and have abnormal growths. In the next sentence, the phrase “on the other hand” indicates a contrast with the description of plants suffering from damage. Thus, the context contrasts the appearance of healthy, undamaged plants with the appearance of damaged plants.
Choice A is incorrect because in this context, “struggling” would mean working against difficulties. The text first describes viburnum plants experiencing damage by insects, and the phrase “on the other hand” then establishes a contrast with that description. It wouldn’t make sense to contrast struggling viburnum plants with those being damaged by insects, because in both cases the plants would be experiencing difficulties.
Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “beneficial” would mean producing good or helpful effects. The text doesn’t discuss how viburnum plants affect other things or suggest that the plants are helpful in some way; rather, it focuses on how viburnum plants are affected by certain conditions.
Choice C is incorrect because in this context “simple” would mean plain or uncomplicated. The text doesn’t discuss whether certain viburnum plants are complicated or uncomplicated; rather, it focuses on how viburnum plants are affected by certain conditions.
Work on vocabulary building and read before and after the underlined sentence.
7th Question
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Cole’s book Blind Spot. In this context, “enthusiasm for” means excitement about. The text explains that Blind Spot consists of original photographs as well as poetic prose—two elements that correspond to Cole’s passions, identified in the text, for photography and the written word. This context suggests that Cole’s excitement about photography and writing led him to create a book that successfully combines the two mediums.
Choice A is incorrect because describing Cole as feeling “indifference to” his two passions wouldn’t make sense in context. If Cole is indifferent to his passions, that would mean he doesn’t care about photography or writing—in which case they wouldn’t be his passions at all.
Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Cole feels “concern about,” or uneasiness about, his passions. The text’s use of the word “culminates” indicates that Blind Spot represents a triumphant climax of Cole’s passions, not a work that results from his sense of discomfort with photography and writing.
Choice D is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Cole feels “surprise at,” or astonished by, his passions. The text indicates that Cole’s feeling about his passions “culminates” in a book that “evocatively” combines photographs and writing, suggesting that Cole has a long-standing and skillful relationship to his passions, not that he is startled by them.
Work on vocabulary building and learn Prepositional Phrases.
8th Question
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Jemisin’s writing. In this context, “conform to” means to act in accordance with something. The text suggests that in her science fiction writing, Jemisin’s willingness to go against expectations and not use plots and themes that seem to follow a formula reflects how she treats the standard practices of the genre. This context conveys that Jemisin chooses not to act in accordance with those conventions.
Choice A is incorrect. In this context, “question” would mean doubt or object to. The text indicates that Jemisin is willing to go against expectations and not use formulaic plots and themes in her science fiction writing, suggesting that she may actually object to those conventions of the genre, not that she chooses not to question them.
Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that in her science fiction writing, Jemisin is willing to go against expectations and not use formulaic plots and themes. Rather than suggesting that Jemisin chooses not to “react to,” or act in response to, the standard practices of the genre, this context suggests that she is acting in response to such conventions by deliberately avoiding them.
Choice C is incorrect. In this context, “perceive” would mean become aware of or understand. The text indicates that in her science fiction writing, Jemisin is willing to go against expectations and not use formulaic plots and themes. This context conveys that Jemisin is aware of and deliberately avoids those conventions of the genre, not that she chooses not to be aware of them.
Skim the paragraph to find the most suitable word, and also work on your vocabulary skills.
9th Question
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s description of how Pico feels about the natural world. In this context, to say that Pico portrays his “ambivalence toward” nature would mean that he portrays his mixed feelings about nature. The text explains that Pico “honors the centrality of nature” and also makes it clear that he doesn’t enjoy being in nature. This context suggests that Pico feels ambivalence toward nature.
Choice A is incorrect because saying that Pico portrays his “responsiveness to” nature would mean that he portrays himself as quick to react to nature, which isn’t supported by the text. Instead, the text focuses on Pico’s mixed feelings toward nature, describing him as both honoring nature’s role in his tribe’s beliefs and expressing his personal dislike for being in nature.
Choice C is incorrect because saying that Pico portrays his “renunciation of” nature would mean that he portrays himself as rejecting nature, which isn’t supported by the text. The text conveys that Pico demonstrates both positive and negative responses toward nature, not that he’s giving it up completely.
Choice D is incorrect because saying that Pico portrays his “mastery over” nature would mean that he portrays himself as having control over nature, which isn’t supported by the text. The text focuses on Pico’s mixed feelings about nature; nothing in the text suggests that Pico feels mastery over nature.
Work on vocabulary building and learn Prepositional Phrases.
10th Question
Choice A is the best answer because it accurately states the main purpose of the text. The text begins by discussing the promise of the future, with positive references to renewal such as “new roads,” “new beating of the drum,” and “fresh seeing.” But with the “new sun,” the text continues, there will still be “the same backs bending” and “the same sad feet” drumming, indicating that these difficulties will follow people into this new day. The poem thus considers both the rewards and challenges associated with the repetitiveness of human life.
Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t say anything about how memorable activities are, let alone compare the memorability of activities completed at different times of the day.
Choice C is incorrect. Although the text contrasts hope with difficulty, it does not compare the relative frequency of joyful feelings with that of sad feelings.
Choice D is incorrect because the text makes no distinction between the experiences of individuals and the experiences of their communities.
Work on your reading and understanding skills by practicing more and more.
11th Question
Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the idea advanced by Homero Gil de Zúñiga and Trevor Diehl that NFM (“news finds me”) attitude may reduce voting probability through an indirect effect. The text describes NFM as an attitude that has lowered people’s interest in actively acquiring news and introduces Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl’s study
on the effects of NFM on people in the United States’ political knowledge and interest. The text goes on to say that despite the fact that the study didn’t occur near a major election, Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl still conclude that NFA may reduce voting probability. If the likelihood, or probability, that a person will vote is linked to that person’s level of political knowledge and interest, that would suggest that negatively affecting a person’s level of political knowledge and interest would also negatively affect how likely that person is to vote. Thus, if the NFM attitude has a negative effect on political knowledge and interest, then it would also likely reduce voting probability.
Choice A is incorrect because the finding that NFM attitude increases as major elections approach wouldn’t address the effect of NFM on the likelihood of voting, which is the idea advanced by Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl. Moreover, although the text mentions that there were no major elections that occurred near the time of the study, it doesn’t discern between major and minor elections when
discussing voting probability.
Choice C is incorrect because finding that NFM attitude shows little correlation with either political knowledge or political interest would undermine, not support, Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl’s idea that NFM may reduce voting probability because it suggests that NFM has no effect on political knowledge or political interest.
Choice D is incorrect. Although Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl’s idea would be supported by the finding that the likelihood of voting increases as political knowledge increases, nothing in the text suggests that the researchers’ idea hinges on the size of people’s social networks.
Focus on the primary function or action being discussed in the passage to identify the main idea.
12th Question
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the potential effects of logging on forest conservation. The text begins by stating that logging practices are often thought of as being contrary to forest conservation efforts. Then, the text presents the results of a research study examining the effect of limited logging practices on specific forest plots, finding
that the plots with limited logging may be “more robust” (healthier) than the plots that hadn’t been logged at all. Given these results, it follows that logging may be a useful practice for maintaining healthy forests if it is practiced in a limited way.
Choice B is incorrect because the study referenced in the text only provides information on limited logging as a potential forest management strategy. There is no information in the text about how other forest management strategies support forest conservation efforts. Therefore, the text does not support the assertion that other forest management strategies are more successful than limited logging.
Choice C is incorrect because the text presents a research study with findings that specific plots of forest with limited logging may be more robust than the forest plots that were not logged. Rather than suggesting that it is hard to know whether limited logging might be beneficial, the text suggests that the practice could be useful in forest conservation efforts.
Choice D is incorrect. The text discusses the results of a research study that compares the health of forest plots with limited logging to forest plots that were not logged. It does not take a position on the best way to support forest health but rather presents a research study with findings that question conventionally held thoughts regarding the practice of logging.
When identifying the conclusion, focus on connecting words and adverbs like However, so far, often…
13th Question
Choice D is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the means authors use to write and revise their novels. After stating that many authors still choose to draft novels by hand even though computers are now widely used, the text acknowledges the speculation that the opposite choice—using only a computer—would have had
an effect on such novels. However, the text then points out that every novel is the singular result of a combination of the particular conditions surrounding its creation. This suggests that it isn’t possible to determine the effect of any single condition (such as the means of writing) on its own; thus, there would be no way to reasonably evaluate how a novel would have turned out differently if it had been
written by other means.
Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that it’s more efficient to write a novel on a computer than to write it by hand; it doesn’t address efficiency at all. Therefore, it isn’t logical to conclude that authors who currently choose to write novels largely by hand should instead work only on a computer to increase their efficiency.
Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest anything about how successful authors are, regardless of the means by which they choose to write; therefore, it isn’t logical to conclude that authors who write largely by hand are likely to be more successful than those who work only on a computer.
Choice C is incorrect because the text makes no mention of the time it takes to produce a novel, regardless of the means by which it’s written; therefore, it isn’t logical to conclude that novels written by hand take less time on average to produce than those written on a computer do.
Focus on the emotional or psychological aspects of a character when considering internal conflicts.
14th Question
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence punctuation. This choice correctly uses a question mark to punctuate the coordinated interrogative clauses “What are atmospheric rivers” and “how do they affect our weather,” both of which ask direct questions.
Choice A is incorrect because a period can’t be used in this way to punctuate an interrogative clause, such as “how do they affect our weather,” at the end of a sentence.
Choice B is incorrect because the structure requires an interrogative clause and a question mark at the end of the sentence.
Choice D is incorrect because the structure requires an interrogative clause at the end of the sentence.
Learn Punctuation and Types of Sentences.
15th Question
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the proper noun “Matthew Henson” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “one…century.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that Matthew Henson—and not another noun in the sentence—is being described as one of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century.
Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “1891 and 1909” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that those years were one of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the proper noun “Greenland” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that Greenland was
one of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “several treks across Greenland” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the treks were one of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century.
When combining sentences, aim for clarity and logical flow. Consider how contrasting ideas should be connected.
16th Question
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between two supplementary phrases following the coordinate clause (“but she…mycology”). This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the supplementary noun phrase (“the study of fungi”) that defines the term “mycology” and the supplementary participial phrase (“producing…London”) that
provides additional information about the extent to which Potter dedicated herself to mycology.
Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join two supplementary phrases following a coordinate clause.
Choice B is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning
with “producing.”
Choice C is incorrect. The lack of punctuation results in a sentence that illogically suggests that the study of fungi is producing more than 350 paintings.
Work on your Punctuation.
17th Question
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “many critics” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “in assessing…Kurosawa.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that it is the critics—and not another noun in the sentence—who assess Kurosawa’s films.
Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “Kurosawa’s…sources” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that his use of Western literary sources is what assesses Kurosawa’s films.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the function word “there” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that “there” is what assesses Kurosawa’s films.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “the focus…critics” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the critics’ focus is what assesses Kurosawa’s films.
You should know Conjunction and Standard English.
18th Question
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of items in a complex series. It’s conventional to use a semicolon to separate items in a complex series with internal punctuation, and in this choice, the semicolon after “2009” is conventionally used to separate the first item (“the world’s…2009”) and the second item (“an online…2010”) in the series of things that Hinson helped create. Further, the comma after “Basic” correctly pairs with the comma after “app,” and the comma after “network” correctly pairs with the comma after “TV” to set off the supplemental elements (“Chickasaw Basic” and “Chickasaw TV”) that provide the names of the app and the TV network, respectively. Altogether, the punctuation in this choice results in a sentence that clearly indicates that
Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a language course in 2015.
Choice A is incorrect because it fails to punctuate the complex series in a way that makes clear that Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a language course in 2015.
Choice B is incorrect because it fails to punctuate the complex series in a way that makes clear that Hinson helped make a language app in 2009, an online TV network in 2010, and a language course in 2015.
Choice D is incorrect because the comma after “2009” doesn’t match the semicolon used to separate the second and third items in the complex series.
Learn Punctuation.
19th Question
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of a supplementary element within a sentence. The dash after “Springs” pairs with the dash after “earth” to separate the supplementary element “in this case, the porous rocks of the hills around Hot Springs” from the rest of the sentence.
Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.
Choice B is incorrect because a colon can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.
Choice D is incorrect because a comma can’t be paired with a dash in this way to separate the
supplementary element from the rest of the sentence.
Learn Punctuation.
20th Question
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of a colon within a sentence. In this choice, the colon is used in a conventional way to introduce the following description of how the number of jams available varied.
Choice B is incorrect because it creates a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses (“the number…varied” and “some…six”).
Choice C is incorrect because it results in an illogical and confusing sentence. Using the conjunction “while” to join the main clause (“the number…varied”) with the following clause’s description of the number of jams available suggests that the variation in the number of jams is in contrast to some shoppers having twenty-four options.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in an illogical and confusing sentence. Using “while” in this way suggests that the number of jams available varied during the time in which some shoppers had twenty-four options and others had six. The sentence makes clear, however, that what follows “varied”
is a description of the variation, not a separate, simultaneous occurrence.
Learn Punctuation and Conjunction.
21st Question
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a main clause and a supplementary phrase. In this choice, a colon is correctly used to mark the boundary between the main clause (“A study…continents”) and the supplementary phrase (“geological…above”) and to introduce the following explanation of the origin of Earth’s continents.
Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the main clause (“A study…continents”) and the supplementary phrase (“geological…above”) with appropriate punctuation.
Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the main clause (“A study…continents”) and the supplementary phrase (“geological…above”). A semicolon is conventionally used
to join two main clauses, whereas a colon is conventionally used to introduce an element that explains or amplifies the information in the preceding clause, making it the better choice in this context.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “geological.”
Learn Punctuation.
22nd Question
Choice A is the best answer. “Afterward” logically signals that the events described in this sentence—the CEO’s public acknowledgment and apology—occurred after the rocket booster’s failure and are part of a chronological sequence of events.
Choice B is incorrect because “additionally” illogically signals that the events described in this sentence merely occurred in addition to the rocket booster’s failure. Instead, they occurred after the rocket booster’s failure and are part of a chronological sequence of events.
Choice C is incorrect because “indeed” illogically signals that the events described in this sentence emphasize or strengthen a statement made in the previous sentence. Instead, they occurred
after the rocket booster’s failure and are part of a chronological sequence of events.
Choice D is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the events described in this sentence are similar to the rocket booster’s failure. Instead, they occurred after the rocket booster’s failure and are part of a chronological sequence of events.
Learn Adverb.
23rd Question
Choice A is the best answer. “Alternatively” logically signals that the soil decontamination method described in this sentence—removing toxic metals from the soil via phytoremediation—offers an alternative to the previously described method (removing the contaminated soil from the ground).
Choice B is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the soil decontamination method described in this sentence specifies or elaborates on an aspect of the previously described method (removing the contaminated soil from the ground). Instead, phytoremediation is an alternative to that method.
Choice C is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the soil decontamination method described in this sentence is an example of the previously described method (removing the contaminated soil from the ground). Instead, phytoremediation is an alternative to that method.
Choice D is incorrect because “as a result” illogically signals that the soil decontamination method described in this sentence is a result or consequence of the previously described method (removing the contaminated soil from the ground). Instead, phytoremediation is an alternative to that method.
Learn Adverb.
24th Question
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence explains an advantage of the Hanke-Henry calendar, noting that it supports more predictable scheduling than does the Gregorian calendar and describing how it does so (by having calendar dates occur on the same day each year).
Choice A is incorrect. The sentence compares the number of days in the Gregorian and Hanke-Henry calendars; it doesn’t explain an advantage of the Hanke-Henry calendar.
Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence refers to a possible reason to adopt the Hanke-Henry calendar—that doing so would help solve a problem with the Gregorian calendar—it doesn’t identify the problem or the solution and thus doesn’t explain the advantage of the Hanke-Henry calendar.
Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes the origins of the Hanke-Henry calendar; it doesn’t explain an advantage of it.
Work on your skimming and summarising skills to blend sentences into one.
25th Question
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively presents the influence theory to an audience unfamiliar with the Haudenosaunee Confederacy, explaining the theory’s position that the Great Law of Peace influenced the US Constitution while avoiding mention of the Haudenosaunee Confederacy itself.
Choice A is incorrect. The sentence broadly emphasizes Johansen’s ideas about the Great Law of Peace; it doesn’t identify the influence theory or effectively present it.
Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes one fact that supports the influence theory; it doesn’t effectively present the theory to an audience unfamiliar with the Haudenosaunee Confederacy.
Choice D is incorrect. The sentence makes a broad generalization about Native people’s influence on the founding of the US; it doesn’t effectively present the influence theory.
Work on your skimming and summarising skills to blend sentences into one.
26th Question
Choice A is the best answer. Noting that the Sun (9,800°F) is hotter than most stars within 10 parsecs of it, the sentence emphasizes how hot the Sun is relative to nearby stars.
Choice B is incorrect. The sentence explains that astronomer Todd Henry determined the classifications for the Sun and several other stars nearby; it doesn’t emphasize how hot the Sun is relative to nearby stars.
Choice C is incorrect. The sentence explains that the majority of stars near the Sun are classified as
K or M stars; it doesn’t indicate the Sun’s temperature or emphasize how hot it is relative to nearby stars.
Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that the Sun is classified differently than most nearby stars due to its surface temperature, it doesn’t emphasize how hot the Sun is relative to nearby stars.
Work on your skimming and summarising skills to blend sentences into one.
27th Question
Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between P waves and S waves, noting that they both travel beneath Earth’s surface, thereby causing the ground to move.
Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the difference between P waves and S waves, noting that P waves travel faster than S waves; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two types of waves.
Choice C is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes how P waves move; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between P waves and S waves.
Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence acknowledges that P waves and S waves start at the same point, it doesn’t emphasize a similarity; instead, the sentence emphasizes a difference between the two types of waves, noting that they behave very differently.
You must have logical reasoning skills for this, keep attempting questions like these to become a master of it.
You should complete the test within the time limit and practice more and more. That is how you will take the final SAT exam and be able to score 1400+ on the SAT. The explanation of answers makes it easy to learn and progress. You must try to work on your speed. “The harder the question – the greater the score.” This is the 1st Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 2nd.
Either you can take the 2nd Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing or the 1st Practice Test of SAT Math Module 1st.
- SAT Test 1st (Math Module 1st)
- SAT Test 2nd (Reading and Writing Module 2nd)
- SAT Test 1st (Reading and Writing Module 1st)
Keep up the hard work. I wish you the best of luck in your future endeavors to get admission to your desired college after the SAT.