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SAT QUESTION PAPER: READING AND WRITING TEST PRACTICE
Are you excited to take Module 2nd of the SAT Reading and Writing Test? I hope you are finishing the whole test. If yes, then you will start to see growth in you in no time. We have designed a format similar to the SAT Examination. You take the SAT Test Reading and Writing Module Second to practice your skills. The best part is that you practice free within the time limit, and there are explanations of the correct answers and tips and tricks to get a perfect score on the SAT.
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ABOUT THE SAT MODULES
The SAT is divided into four modules. There are two categories with each divided two modules into. The first category is “Reading and Writing” with two modules. The second category is “Math” with two modules. The one, you will do below is SAT Practice Test Reading and Writing Module 2nd.
The first module keeps questions from easy to difficult but the second module only contains difficult questions. If you want to do some other SATs then visit the links below.
- 1st Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 1st Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
SAT READING AND WRITING MODULE 2ND
The second module of the SAT reading and writing also contains four segments: Craft and Structure, Information and Ideas, Standard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas. The questions in Module 2nd are only difficult. In a real SAT exam, you must answer 27 questions within 32 minutes. You will find the same time structure here in this Practice Test.
Instructions for the SAT Real-Time Exam
- Go Back-and-Forth: You will see an arrow in the right or left corner of the slide. Click to move forward or backward.
- Interaction: You will see a press button at the top right corner that tells you there are some interactive components in the slide. Click the press button to find out.
- Timer: On the top of the slide, you will see the timer, we have divided the time based on the average of the module 2nd. (The 32 minutes are equally divided into 27 questions’ time.) It is best to note the time before and after finishing the practice test to measure, “Was it within 32 minutes or not?”
- Image: You can click on graph, table, or other images to expand and see it on full screen.
- Mute: You can click on the speaker button to mute the audio.
- Mobile: You cannot take the real exam on mobile, but our practice exam you can give on mobile.
- Tips: This article will help you learn more about the SAT Exams. SAT: EVERYTHING ABOUT THE SAT
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SAT READING AND WRITING QUESTION SOLUTIONS WITH EXPLANATION
Do not open the tabs before finishing the practice test above! We have compiled all the solutions and their explanations here for your convenience. We will also give you some tips or advice to help you understand them better. You’ll see ‘why this answer is correct’ and ‘why this is incorrect.’
Reading and Writing Answers and Explanations
The color green shows the correct answer, red shows the incorrect answer, and blue shows tips or tricks.
1st Question
Question: The following text is adapted from Jerome K. Jerome’s 1889 novel Three Men in a Boat (To Say Nothing of the Dog). The narrator is traveling by boat with Harris and another friend.
[Harris] told us anecdotes of how he had gone across the [English] Channel when it was so rough that the passengers had to be tied into their [beds], and he and the captain were the only two living souls on board who were not ill. Sometimes it was he and the second mate who were not ill; but it was generally he and one other man. If not he and another man, then it was by himself.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A) It indicates the reason for Harris’s eagerness to resume traveling.
B) It hints at Harris’s feeling that during an earlier boat trip, others didn’t include him in activities.
C) It emphasizes that Harris always boasts about his own constitution when speaking of a previous boat trip.
D) It reveals that although Harris claims to prefer solitary activities when traveling, he actually enjoys having company.
Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. In the text, Harris tells stories about his previous boat trip across the English Channel, when conditions were so rough that others onboard became seasick. According to the text, Harris’s accounts vary somewhat but generally involve him and only one other man not growing ill. The underlined sentence then adds that if it was “not [Harris] and another man” who didn’t develop seasickness, “then it was [Harris] by himself.” That is, some versions of the story even involve Harris being the only person onboard who resisted seasickness. Therefore, the underlined sentence emphasizes that Harris always boasts about his own constitution, or physical well-being, when speaking of a previous boat trip.
Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t portray Harris as being eager to resume traveling; instead, it shows Harris boasting about how he didn’t become seasick on a previous boat trip when most or all of the other people onboard did.
Choice B is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Harris felt excluded from activities during an earlier boat trip. The text suggests that Harris experienced isolation during that trip because others onboard had grown ill, not because Harris had wanted to join certain activities but felt left out.
Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t portray Harris as either enjoying company or claiming to prefer solitude. The text suggests that Harris experienced some degree of isolation during a previous boat trip, but the reason provided by the text has nothing to do with a preference for either solitude or the opposite; rather, the reason, according to Harris, is that most or all of the other people onboard were sick.
You have to read the whole paragraph to understand it, cause it asks for a summary of it.
2nd Question
Question: Several studies have found negligible electoral consequences for governments that impose fiscal austerity measures, yet some European recently suffered electorally due to their programs. Evelyne Huebscher and colleagues attribute this incongruity to governments’ tendency—not followed in the recent European cases—to implement austerity programs strategically to avoid electoral costs (e.g., setting spending cuts to take effect only after the next election), which has obscured the inherent political risks of austerity measures in the election data scholars have examined.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A) It explains a discrepancy between what has been observed in study settings and what has been observed in real-world settings that the text goes on to assert is attributable to the studies not using real-world data.
B) It identifies a conflict between research findings and recent events that the text goes on to suggest is a consequence of a complicating factor in the data used to generate those findings.
C) It presents a long-standing divergence in research findings that the text goes on to say is due to different groups of researchers using data that derive from different electoral circumstances.
D) It describes a recent exception to a general pattern in research findings that the text goes on to explain is a result of researchers underestimating the significance of inconsistencies in the data they’ve analyzed.
Choice B is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The underlined sentence explains that contrary to what several studies would suggest, recent European governments suffered electorally after the launch of fiscal austerity programs. The text goes on to indicate that the researchers generated their findings from data that didn’t reveal the true political risk of austerity measures because the data were based on cases in which governments had set austerity programs to take effect after the next election, a practice the European governments that recently suffered electorally didn’t adhere to, thus introducing a complicating factor resulting in a conflict between the research findings and recent events.
Choice A is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t indicate that the discrepancy described in the text is between observations made in a study setting and observations made in real-world settings. Rather, the underlined sentence indicates that the outcome of recent events is contrary to what would be expected based on the findings of several studies. Additionally, there is nothing in the text to suggest that the studies mentioned did not use real-world data; instead, the text indicates that the data used was generated under potentially different circumstances than the recent events.
Choice C is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t present a long-standing divergence in research findings but rather a discrepancy between past research findings and recent events that the text goes on to attribute to researchers’ use of data that didn’t reveal the true political risk of austerity measures.
Choice D is incorrect because while the underlined sentence notes that there have been some recent exceptions to a general pattern observed in several research studies, it does not go on to attribute this exception to the researchers’ underestimating inconsistencies in the data. Rather, the text goes on to attribute this to a circumstance (fiscal austerity measures being implemented before an election rather than after) which adds a complicating factor to the data not accounted
for in past studies.
Don’t just read the underlined part, skim through the whole paragraph.
3rd Question
Question:
Text 1
Graphic novels are increasingly popular in bookstores and libraries, but they shouldn’t be classified as literature. By definition, literature tells a story or conveys meaning through language only; graphic novels tell stories through illustrations and use language only sparingly, in captions and dialogue. Graphic novels are experienced as series of images and not as language, making them more similar to film than to literature.
Text 2
Graphic novels present their stories through both language and images. Without captions and dialogue, readers would be unable to understand what is depicted in the illustrations: the story results from the interaction of text and image. Moreover, Alison Bechdel’s Fun Home and many other graphic novels feature text that is as beautifully written as the prose found in many standard novels. Therefore, graphic novels qualify as literary texts.
Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the overall argument presented in Text 1?
A) By asserting that language plays a more important role in graphic novels than the author of Text 1 recognizes
B) By acknowledging that the author of Text 1 has identified a flaw that is common to all graphic novels
C) By suggesting that the story lines of certain graphic novels are more difficult to understand than the author of Text 1 claims
D) By agreeing with the author of Text 1 that most graphic novels aren’t as well crafted as most literary works are
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to the argument presented in Text 1. In arguing that graphic novels shouldn’t be classified as literature and are more comparable to film, Text 1 claims that language plays a relatively limited role in graphic novels: images, not language, are the primary means by which graphic novels tell their stories, and language is used “only sparingly”—that is, comparatively very little—in the form of captions and dialogue. However, the author of Text 2 asserts that language in graphic novels is as equally vital for conveying meaning as images are, since without captions and dialogue, readers wouldn’t be able to make sense of the narrative. Moreover, the author of Text 2 argues that there are many graphic novels that are “beautifully written” and whose use of language is as accomplished as any standard novel. Because Text 1 argues that language is subordinate to images in graphic novels, whereas Text 2 highlights how language is an essential component of a graphic novel’s storytelling, it can reasonably be inferred that the author of Text 2 would say that language plays a more important role in graphic novels than the author of Text 1 recognizes.
Choice B is incorrect. Although Text 1 indicates that graphic novels shouldn’t be classified as literature based on their limited use of language, there’s no indication that the author of Text 1 considers this limited use of language as a flaw, just that it doesn’t fit the particular definition of “literature” proposed in the text. Even if Text 1 suggested that their use of language was a common flaw in graphic novels, the author of Text 2 emphasizes how many graphic novels are “beautifully written,” and would therefore say that their use of language is exemplary, not that it is flawed.
Choice C is incorrect because Text 1 doesn’t claim that the story lines of graphic novels are generally relatively easy to understand; in addition, Text 2 argues that given their dependence on the interaction of image and text, the stories of graphic novels would be incomprehensible if their captions and dialogue was removed, not that the storylines of some graphic novels are more difficult to understand than Text 1 acknowledges.
Choice D is incorrect because the author of Text 1 doesn’t imply that graphic novels aren’t well crafted, only that they use language too sparingly to fit the definition of “literature,” and their use of images to convey stories makes them more comparable to film than to literature. Even if the author of Text 1 had implied that most graphic novels aren’t well crafted, Text 2 refers to the fact that many graphic novels are as beautifully written—that is, well crafted—as many standard novels; thus, it wouldn’t be accurate to say that the author of Text 2 would agree with the author of Text 1 that most graphic novels aren’t well crafted.
This is a time-consuming question, guess the answer if you don’t have skimming skills.
4th Question
Question: The following text is adapted from Ann Petry’s 1946 novel The Street. Lutie lives in an apartment in Harlem, New York.
The glow from the sunset was making the street radiant. The street is nice in this light, [Lutie] thought. It was swarming with children who were playing ball and darting back and forth across the sidewalk in complicated games of tag. Girls were skipping double dutch rope, going tirelessly through the exact center of a pair of ropes, jumping first on one foot and then the other. ©1946 by Ann Petry
Which choice best describes what is happening in the text?
A) Lutie is observing the appearance of the street at a particular time of day and the events occurring on it.
B) Lutie is annoyed by the noise of children playing games on her street.
C) Lutie is puzzled by the rules of certain children’s games.
D) Lutie is spending time alone in her apartment because she doesn’t want to interact with her neighbors.
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states what is happening in the text. The narrator notes that Lutie thinks the street looks nice in the light of the sunset. The narrator goes on to describe what Lutie can see in the street: children playing ball or tag and girls skipping rope. Thus, what is happening in the text is that Lutie is observing the appearance of the street at a particular time of day and the events occurring on it.
Choice B is incorrect. Although Lutie is observing children playing games on her street, the text doesn’t suggest that she is annoyed by the noise of the games. Instead, the text says that Lutie thinks the street looks nice in the light of the sunset.
Choice C is incorrect. Although Lutie is observing children playing games on her street, the text doesn’t suggest that she is puzzled by the rules of the games.
Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence in the text that Lutie doesn’t want to interact with her neighbors or that she is in her apartment alone. All the text indicates about Lutie is that she is watching the events on the street and thinks the street looks nice in the light of the sunset.
Take a look at the options, they are talking about Lutie, so focus on sentences where it is about Lutie.
5th Question
Question: Since its completion in 2014, Bosco Verticale (Vertical Forest)—a pair of residential towers in Milan, Italy, covered by vegetation—has become a striking symbol of environmental sustainability in architecture. Stefano Boeri intended his design, which features balconies that are home to hundreds of trees, to serve as a model for promoting urban biodiversity. However, the concept has faced skepticism: critics note that although the trees used in Bosco Verticale were specifically cultivated for the project, it’s too early to tell if they can thrive in this unusual setting.
According to the text, why are some critics skeptical of the concept behind Bosco Verticale?
A) Some essential aspects of Bosco Verticale’s design are difficult to adapt to locations other than Milan.
B) The plant life on Bosco Verticale ended up being less varied than Boeri had envisioned it would be.
C) The construction of Bosco Verticale was no less environmentally damaging than the construction of more conventional buildings is.
D) It is unclear whether Bosco Verticale can support the plant life included in its design.
Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about critics’ skepticism of Bosco Verticale that is supported by the text. The text states that Boeri’s design for Bosco Verticale features hundreds of trees on balconies and is intended to serve as a model for promoting urban biodiversity. However the text goes on to state that some critics believe that it is too early to determine if the trees planted on Bosco Verticale can thrive there. Therefore, according to the text, critics are skeptical of the concept behind Bosco Verticale because it is unclear whether Bosco Verticale can support the plant life included in its design.
Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that one of Boeri’s goals was for Bosco Verticale to serve as a model for promoting biodiversity in architecture, which suggests that Boeri would likely support the idea of reproducing the same concept in other locations, the text does not discuss whether it is feasible to adapt the design to locations other than Milan. Instead, the text describes critics’ concerns that the plant life that currently exists on Bosco Verticale might not thrive in its current setting.
Choice B is incorrect. Although the text states that one of Boeri’s goals in creating Bosco Verticale was to promote biodiversity, which implies a goal of including varied plant life in the design, it does not mention whether the hundreds of trees that were planted on its balconies failed to meet this goal. Rather, the text states that some critics are concerned that the trees on Bosco Verticale’s balconies may not thrive in this setting.
Choice C is incorrect because the text does not mention how Bosco Verticale was constructed, let alone how environmentally destructive its construction may have been relative to the construction of more conventional buildings.
Focus on the tone of skepticism or the word skepticism.
6th Question
Question: In studying the use of external stimuli to reduce the itching sensation caused by an allergic histamine response, Louise Ward and colleagues found that while harmless applications of vibration or warming can provide a temporary distraction, such ____________ stimuli actually offer less relief than a stimulus that seems less benign, like a mild electric shock.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) deceptive
B) innocuous
C) novel
D) impractical
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ward and colleagues’ findings. As used in this context, “innocuous” means mild or unharmful. The text describes the vibration and warming that Ward and colleagues used to alleviate itching as “harmless applications” and goes on to contrast these applications with another stimulus that actually offers more relief even though it seems to be stronger and “less benign.” This context conveys the idea that vibration and warming were innocuous stimuli.
Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on a distinction between harmless stimuli and those that seem to be less benign. Nothing in the text suggests that any of the treatments are “deceptive,” or misleading; indeed, even the less effective ones are described as offering some relief.
Choice C is incorrect because the text focuses on the amount of relief from itching offered by harmless stimuli and those that seem to be less benign. The text doesn’t suggest that any of these stimuli are “novel,” or original and new; heat, vibration, and electricity aren’t new inventions.
Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to describe an application of vibration or warming as “impractical,” or not suitable for use. The text indicates that these harmless applications are useful in that they offer at least some temporary relief.
Skim the paragraph to find the most suitable word, and also work on your vocabulary skills.
7th Question
Question: The province of Xoconochco was situated on the Pacific coast, hundreds of kilometers southeast of Tenochtitlan, the capital of the Aztec Empire. Because Xoconochco’s location within the empire was so ____________, cacao and other trade goods produced there could reach the capital only after a long overland journey.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) unobtrusive
B) concealed
C) approximate
D) peripheral
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the location of the province of Xoconochco within the Aztec Empire. As used in this context, “peripheral” means situated toward the outer bounds rather than the center. The text indicates that Xoconochco was located on a coast, hundreds of kilometers away from the capital of the Aztec Empire. The text also states that trade between the province and the capital required “a long overland journey.” This context suggests that Xoconochco was situated toward an edge of the empire’s territory rather than near its center.
Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to refer to Xoconochco’s location within the Aztec Empire as “unobtrusive,” or not blatant or undesirably prominent; it’s not clear how a province’s physical location would or wouldn’t be blatant. Instead of focusing on how noticeable Xoconochco’s location was, the text emphasizes the province’s distance from the capital of the empire, pointing out that because of this distance trade between the two required “a long overland journey.”
Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the province of Xoconochco was located on a coast far from the capital of the Aztec Empire, not that it was “concealed,” or kept out of sight or hidden from view. Nothing in the text suggests that Xoconochco was actually hidden such that people couldn’t see it, and being hidden wouldn’t necessarily result in trade between the province and the capital requiring “a long overland journey.”
Choice C is incorrect because to say that Xoconochco’s location within the Aztec Empire was “approximate” would mean that the location either wasn’t precisely correct or was close to some other location. Neither of these meanings would make sense in context because the text indicates that Xoconochco’s location is known and that it was far from the empire’s capital, so there’s no reason to characterize the location as either not precisely correct or close to another location.
Skim the paragraph to find the most suitable word, and also work on your vocabulary skills.
8th Question
Question: The following text is from Charlotte Brontë’s 1847 novel Jane Eyre. Jane works as a governess at Thornfield Hall.
I went on with my day’s business tranquilly; but ever and anon vague suggestions kept wandering across my brain of reasons why I should quit Thornfield; and I kept involuntarily framing advertisements and pondering conjectures about new situations: these thoughts I did not think to check; they might germinate and bear fruit if they could.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To convey a contrast between Jane’s outward calmness and internal restlessness
B) To emphasize Jane’s loyalty to the people she works for at Thornfield Hall
C) To demonstrate that Jane finds her situation both challenging and deeply fulfilling
D) To describe Jane’s determination to secure employment outside of Thornfield Hall
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to show that while Jane calmly goes about her daily tasks, she is experiencing internal agitation about possibly seeking a new job. At the start of the text, Jane says, “I went on with my day’s business tranquilly,” indicating that she is outwardly calm. This outward calmness is then contrasted with her intense internal restlessness, as Jane says that thoughts of leaving her job keep running through her mind, that she is “involuntarily framing advertisements” (meaning that she can’t stop herself from thinking up potential listings for jobs), and that she often wonders what new “situations” (or jobs) would be like.
Choice B is incorrect because the text gives no indication of Jane’s feelings, either positive or negative, about the people she works for at Thornfield Hall. And rather than emphasizing that Jane feels particularly loyal to her employers, the text focuses on her constant consideration of leaving her job.
Choice C is incorrect because the text gives no indication that Jane finds her current situation fulfilling, or satisfying. Given that much of the text is focused on Jane’s thoughts about possibly leaving her job for a new one, it might be the case that she finds her situation challenging, but there is no evidence in the text that Jane also finds that situation satisfying—she says nothing positive about her current job at all, in fact.
Choice D is incorrect because the text describes Jane as wondering about getting a new job, not as determined to definitely do so. Jane keeps thinking about reasons why she “should” quit her current job (indicating that she hasn’t yet decided to) and imagining possible new situations she could find, but she says at the end of the text that these thoughts “might germinate and bear fruit if they could,” meaning that the thoughts haven’t yet led to a decision—that Jane isn’t yet determined to get a new job somewhere else.
Asking for the main idea of the text, skim and understand. Attempt more questions like this to become a master at it.
9th Question
Question:
Text 1
Most animals can regenerate some parts of their bodies, such as skin. But when a three-banded panther worm is cut into three pieces, each piece grows into a new worm. Researchers are investigating this feat partly to learn more about humans’ comparatively limited abilities to regenerate, and they’re making exciting progress. An especially promising discovery is that both humans and panther worms have a gene for early growth response (EGR) linked to regeneration.
Text 2
When Mansi Srivastava and her team reported that panther worms, like humans, possess a gene for EGR, it caused excitement. However, as the team pointed out, the gene likely functions very differently in humans than it does in panther worms. Srivastava has likened EGR to a switch that activates other genes involved in regeneration in panther worms, but how this switch operates in humans remains unclear.
Based on the texts, what would the author of Text 2 most likely say about Text 1’s characterization of the discovery involving EGR?
A) It is reasonable given that Srivastava and her team have identified how EGR functions in both humans and panther worms.
B) It is overly optimistic given additional observations from Srivastava and her team.
C) It is unexpected given that Srivastava and her team’s findings were generally met with enthusiasm.
D) It is unfairly dismissive given the progress that Srivastava and her team have reported.
Choice B is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to Text 1 based on the information provided. Text 1 discusses the discovery of a regeneration-linked gene, EGR, in both three-banded panther worms (which are capable of full regeneration) and humans (who have relatively limited regeneration abilities). Text 1 characterizes this discovery as “especially promising” and a sign of “exciting progress” in understanding human regeneration. The author of Text 2, on the other hand, focuses on the fact that the team that reported the EGR finding pointed out that while EGR’s function in humans isn’t yet known, it’s likely very different from its function in panther worms. Therefore, the author of Text 2 would most likely say that Text 1’s enthusiasm about the EGR discovery is overly optimistic given Srivastava’s team’s observations about EGR in humans.
Choice A is incorrect because the author of Text 2 explains that Srivastava and her team explicitly reported that they haven’t yet identified how EGR functions in humans; therefore, the author of Text 2 wouldn’t say that Text 1’s excitement is reasonable for the stated reason. Instead, the author of Text 2 would likely characterize Text 1’s excitement as premature and overly optimistic.
Choice C is incorrect because Text 1 does treat Srivastava’s team’s findings with enthusiasm; it describes the discovery of EGR in both three-banded panther worms and humans as promising and exciting. It would be illogical for the author of Text 2 to say that because most others treat the discovery with enthusiasm, Text 1’s enthusiastic characterization of the discovery is unexpected.
Choice D is incorrect because Text 1 isn’t at all dismissive of Srivastava’s team’s findings; instead, Text 1 is optimistic about the EGR discovery, characterizing it as promising and exciting. There’s nothing in Text 2 to suggest that the author of Text 2 would say that Text 1’s praise for the discovery is dismissive, or disdainful.
A time-consuming question, don’t attempt it if you take time to resolve it. You can always guess the answer. Practice more questions like this to become a master at it.
10th Question
Question: The following text is adapted from William Shakespeare’s 1609 poem “Sonnet 27.” The poem is addressed to a close friend as if he were physically present.
Weary with toil, I [hurry] to my bed, The dear repose for limbs with travel tired; But then begins a journey in my head To work my mind, when body’s work’s expired: For then my thoughts—from far where I abide— [Begin] a zealous pilgrimage to thee, And keep my drooping eyelids open wide,
What is the main idea of the text?
A) The speaker is asleep and dreaming about traveling to see the friend.
B) The speaker is planning an upcoming trip to the friend’s house.
C) The speaker is too fatigued to continue a discussion with the friend.
D) The speaker is thinking about the friend instead of immediately falling asleep.
Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The speaker describes the experience of being “weary” and “tired” and going to bed to seek “dear repose” (that is, sleep), but instead of sleeping, the speaker is kept awake (“keep my drooping eyelids open wide”) by thoughts of a friend (“my thoughts… [Begin] a zealous pilgrimage to thee”).
Choice A is incorrect because the text makes it clear that the speaker isn’t asleep; thoughts about the friend are keeping the speaker awake (“keep my drooping eyelids open wide”).
Choice B is incorrect because the speaker isn’t talking about taking a literal trip when referring to “a zealous pilgrimage.” Rather, the speaker is referring to the experience of thinking about the friend, of taking “a journey in my head.”
Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that the speaker and the friends aren’t in the same place and having a conversation. Rather, the speaker is at home and thinking of the friend, who is somewhere else (“from far where I abide”).
Asking for the main idea of the text, skim and understand. Attempt more questions like this to become a master at it.
11th Question
Question: To understand how temperature change affects microorganism-mediated cycling of soil nutrients in alpine ecosystems, Eva Kaštovská et al. collected plant-soil cores in the Tatra Mountains at elevations around 2,100 meters and transplanted them to elevations of 1,700–1,800 meters, where the mean air temperature was warmer by 2°C. Microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores; crucially, microorganism community composition was unchanged, allowing Kaštovská et al. to attribute the acceleration to temperature-induced increases in microorganism activity.
It can most reasonably be inferred from the text that the finding about the microorganism community composition was important for which reason?
A) It provided preliminary evidence that microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores.
B) It suggested that temperature-induced changes in microorganism activity may be occurring at increasingly high elevations.
C) It ruled out a potential alternative explanation for the acceleration in microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling.
D) It clarified that microorganism activity levels in the plant-soil cores varied depending on which microorganisms comprised the community.
Choice C is the best answer because it accurately describes why the finding about the microorganism community composition was important. The text describes an experiment by Eva Kaštovská and her team in which they collected plant-soil cores at one elevation and transplanted them to sites at a lower elevation, where the mean air temperature was warmer. Kaštovská and her team observed that microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores and that “crucially, microorganism community composition was unchanged,” which allowed the team to attribute the acceleration to changes in microorganism activity brought about by the difference in temperature. This strongly implies that the team wouldn’t have been able to make that attribution otherwise, meaning that a change in microorganism composition represented another possible explanation for the acceleration that had to be ruled out.
Choice A is incorrect. Although the text says microorganism-mediated cycling of soil nutrients increased in the transplanted cores, this is unrelated to what’s important about the finding that the microorganism composition didn’t change—that it allowed the team to attribute the change in activity solely to the change in temperature.
Choice B is incorrect. Although the text compares the activity in one core at two different elevations, the text doesn’t address changes in activity at various elevations over time.
Choice D is incorrect. Although different microorganisms likely exhibit different levels of activity, the text indicates that there was no change in microorganism composition, and there is nothing in the text about different microorganisms having different activity levels.
This is time-consuming, you can guess if you take time to read. Practice more to improve your speed.
12th Question
Question: Some astronomers searching for extraterrestrial life have proposed that atmospheric NH3 (ammonia) can serve as a biosignature gas—an indication that a planet harbors life. Jingcheng Huang, Sara Seager, and colleagues evaluated this possibility, finding that on rocky planets, atmospheric NH3 likely couldn’t reach detectably high levels in the absence of biological activity. But the team also found that on so-called mini-Neptunes—gas planets smaller than Neptune but with atmospheres similar to Neptune’s—atmospheric pressure and temperature can be high enough to produce atmospheric NH3.
Based on the text, Huang, Seager, and colleagues would most likely agree with which statement about atmospheric NH3?
A) Its presence is more likely to indicate that a planet is a mini-Neptune than that the planet is a rocky planet that could support life.
B) Its absence from a planet that’s not a mini-Neptune indicates that the planet probably doesn’t have life.
C) It should be treated as a biosignature gas if detected in the atmosphere of a rocky planet but not if detected in the atmosphere of a mini-Neptune.
D) It doesn’t reliably reach high enough concentrations in the atmospheres of rocky planets or mini-Neptunes to be treated as a biosignature gas.
Choice C is the best answer because it states a conclusion the researchers likely agree with, given the details in the text. The text explains that a biosignature gas is a gas that can be used as an indicator that a planet harbors some form of life and some astronomers have proposed that NH₃ could serve as a biosignature gas. The researchers evaluating this claim found that the atmosphere of rocky planets would be unlikely to reach “detectably high levels” of NH₃ without biological activity, which would support the proposal of NH₃ serving as a biosignature gas. However, the text also states that mini-Neptune planets can produce NH₃ in the absence of biological activity. Thus, the text is structured to lead to the conclusion that detectable levels of NH₃ in the atmospheres of rocky planets could constitute a biosignature, but that is not the case for detectable levels of the gas in the atmospheres of mini-Neptune planets.
Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that biological activity likely accounts for detectable levels of NH₃ in the atmospheres of rocky planets but mini-Neptune planets can have detectable levels of NH₃ in their atmospheres in the absence of biological activity. Therefore, both rocky planets and mini-Neptune planets can have detectable levels of atmospheric NH₃.
Choice B is incorrect because the text states that for NH₃ to reach detectable levels in the atmospheres of rocky planets likely means they harbor biological activity, meaning that rocky planets with detectable NH₃ usually harbor biological activity. However, that does not entail that every rocky planet with biological activity will have detectable levels of NH₃ in their atmospheres.
Choice D is incorrect because the text claims only that some astronomers have proposed using NH₃ as a biosignature gas without mentioning a minimum concentration of atmospheric NH₃ that must be met for it to function as a biosignature gas.
This is time-consuming, you can guess if you take time to read. Practice more to improve your speed.
13th Question
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Question: In 2021, four of the United States national parks that were among the most visited were Grand Canyon National Park, Rocky Mountain National Park, Yellowstone National Park, and Zion National Park. The graph shows the number of visits for recreation to each of these parks during the three-month period with the highest number of visitors. A student notes that among the parks shown in the graph, the park with the highest monthly recreation visits in all three
months was _____________.
Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text?
A) Zion National Park.
B) Rocky Mountain National Park.
C) Yellowstone National Park.
D) Grand Canyon National Park.
Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement about the US national park with the highest number of recreation visits during a three-month period. The line graph shows the number of recreation visits to four US national parks for the months of June, July, and August 2021. According to the graph, the number of recreation visits to
Yellowstone National Park in June was approximately 940,000; in July, the number of visits was approximately 1,080,000; and in August, the number of visits was approximately 920,000. In all three months, the number of visits to Yellowstone was higher than the number of visits to any other park in each month.
Choice A is incorrect. According to the graph, the number of recreation visits to Zion National Park was approximately 680,000 in June, about 580,000 in July, and about 470,000 in August, each of which is lower than the number of visits to Yellowstone in the same months.
Choice B is incorrect. According to the graph, the number of recreation visits to Rocky Mountain National Park was approximately 670,000 in June, about 900,000 in July, and about 750,000 in
August, each of which is lower than the number of visits to Yellowstone in the same month.
Choice D is incorrect. According to the graph, the number of recreation visits to Grand Canyon National Park was approximately 540,000 in June, about 560,000 in July, and about 430,000 in August, each of which is lower than the total visits to Yellowstone in the same months.
You should focus on the signs to better understand it. It looks difficult but it is not. The only thing that will be tough for you to solve it on time. Keep practicing more.
14th Question
Question: “Lines Written in Early Spring” is a 1798 poem by William Wordsworth. In the poem, the speaker describes having contradictory feelings while experiencing the sights and sounds of a spring
day: _______________
Which quotation from “Lines Written in Early Spring” most effectively illustrates the claim?
A) “Through primrose-tufts, in that sweet bower, / The periwinkle trail’d its wreathes; / And ’tis my faith that every flower / Enjoys the air it breathes.”
B) “The budding twigs spread out their fan, / To catch the breezy air; / And I must think, do all I can, / That there was pleasure there.”
C) “The birds around me hopp’d and play’d: / Their thoughts I cannot measure, / But the least motion which they made, / It seem’d a thrill of
pleasure.”
D) “I heard a thousand blended notes, / While in a grove I [sat] reclined, / In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts / Bring sad thoughts to the mind.”
Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that the speaker has contradictory feelings while experiencing the sights and sounds of spring. This quotation indicates that the speaker is reclined in a grove listening to a thousand sounds. Even though the speaker is in a “sweet mood” and thinking “pleasant thoughts,” those pleasant thoughts also bring to mind “sad thoughts.” In other words, these lines illustrate the claim that the speaker is having contradictory thoughts while immersed in the sights and sounds of spring.
Choice A is incorrect. Although this quotation refers to several flowers (primroses and periwinkles) and indicates that the speaker is in a “bower,” or shady spot among the trees—details which suggest that the speaker is experiencing the sights of spring—it doesn’t suggest that the speaker is having contradictory feelings, only that the speaker believes that the flowers are experiencing enjoyment.
Choice B is incorrect. Although this quotation focuses on the sights of spring—namely, new leaves on nearby trees appear to be opening up (“The budding twigs spread out their fan”) to feel the breeze—the quotation doesn’t suggest that the speaker feels conflicted about this: the statement “And I must think, do all I can” suggests the speaker’s determination to attribute feelings of pleasure to the trees, not that the speaker is experiencing contradictory feelings.
Choice C is incorrect. Although this quotation indicates that the speaker isn’t certain what the birds are thinking (“Their thoughts I cannot measure”), there’s nothing to suggest that the speaker is experiencing contradictory feelings. Rather, the quotation suggests that although the speaker is uncertain about the birds’ feelings, the speaker believes that the birds’ movements likely suggest their
pleasure.
For this, you should know the poem. It is from your school curriculum.
15th Question
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Question: To test whether a medication is effective, scientists compare outcomes for patients taking it and patients taking a placebo (a medically inactive substance). Patients normally aren’t told they’re receiving a placebo, but a research team conducted a study to see if there might be a medical benefit to telling them. The team used various measures to evaluate participants, with higher ratings indicating greater well-being in each measure. Compared to the mean ratings after 21 days for participants in the control group, the mean ratings for participants who were aware of taking a placebo __________.
Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?
A) ranged from 5.0 to 92.00, indicating that well-being varied widely from participant to participant.
B) were lower for two measures, with the rating for only one measure indicating greater well-being for these participants.
C) ranged from 3.9 to 46.00, with no rating indicating greater well-being in any measure for these participants.
D) were higher for all three measures, indicating greater overall well-being for these participants.
Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement comparing the mean ratings for two different groups of participants in a study. The text explains that a research team evaluated the study’s participants using various measures in order to learn whether there might be a medical benefit to telling patients they’re receiving a placebo. The table shows the team’s mean ratings for participants after 21 days for three of the measures: global improvement, symptom severity reduction, and quality of life improvement. According to the table, the mean ratings were higher for all three measures for participants aware of taking a placebo than for participants in the control group. Given that higher ratings indicate greater well-being, as the text states, the mean ratings in the table indicate greater overall well-being for participants aware of taking a placebo than for participants in the control group.
Choice A is incorrect because the table doesn’t include data about individual participants; rather, it presents means, or mathematical averages, of ratings. For this reason, no conclusions can be drawn from the data in the table about the extent to which well-being may have varied from participant to participant.
Choice B is incorrect because according to the table, the mean ratings for participants aware of taking a placebo were higher for all three measures than for participants in the control group, not lower for two of the measures.
Choice C is incorrect because it cites data from the table related to participants in the control group, not to participants aware of taking a placebo. Additionally, the mean ratings in the table for participants aware of taking a placebo are higher for all three measures than for participants in the control group. Given that higher ratings indicate greater well-being, as the text states, the ratings in the table for participants aware of taking a placebo indicate greater well-being for these participants in all three measures.
Attempt more tests to become proficient in it.
16th Question
Question: Many of William Shakespeare’s tragedies address broad themes that still appeal to today’s audiences. For instance, Romeo and Juliet, which is set in the Italy of Shakespeare’s time, tackles the themes of parents versus children and love versus hate, and the play continues to be read and produced widely around the world. But understanding Shakespeare’s so-called history plays can require a knowledge of several centuries of English history. Consequently, ________.
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) many theatergoers and readers today are likely to find Shakespeare’s history plays less engaging than the tragedies.
B) some of Shakespeare’s tragedies are more relevant to today’s audiences than twentieth-century plays.
C) Romeo and Juliet is the most thematically accessible of all Shakespeare’s tragedies.
D) experts in English history tend to prefer Shakespeare’s history plays to his other works.
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the relative appeal of different kinds of plays by Shakespeare to today’s audiences. According to the text, Shakespeare’s tragedies address broad themes that continue to appeal to today’s audiences. Indeed, the text suggests that these themes are timeless, as illustrated by the example of Romeo and Juliet, which the text states is still read and widely performed despite being set in the Italy of Shakespeare’s time. In contrast, the text indicates that audiences and readers may need to be familiar with several centuries of English history in order to understand Shakespeare’s history plays. Because many theatergoers and readers are unlikely to possess such extensive historical knowledge, it follows
that they are likely to find Shakespeare’s history plays less engaging than his more accessible tragedies.
Choice B is incorrect because the text never introduces a comparison between Shakespeare’s tragedies and twentieth-century plays, only between Shakespeare’s tragedies and his history plays. Since twentieth-century plays aren’t mentioned, there’s no basis in the text for the idea that some of Shakespeare’s tragedies are more relevant than twentieth-century plays to today’s audiences.
Choice C is incorrect. Although the text indicates that Romeo and Juliet is thematically accessible to today’s audiences, it doesn’t suggest that Romeo and Juliet is more accessible than Shakespeare’s other tragedies. Rather, the text presents Romeo and Juliet as an example to support the idea that Shakespeare’s tragedies hold continued appeal for today’s readers and theatergoers.
Choice D is incorrect. Although experts in English history would likely possess the knowledge needed to understand Shakespeare’s history plays, the text never mentions such experts or suggests that they would enjoy the history plays more than Shakespeare’s other works.
It is absolute that if the blank is at the end, it will ask for the conclusion. Work on your skimming speed to answer it.
17th Question
Question: Ancestral Puebloans, the civilization from which present-day Pueblo tribes descended, emerged as early as 1500 B.C.E. in an area of what is now the southwestern United States and dispersed suddenly in the late 1200s C.E., abandoning established villages with systems for farming crops and turkeys. Recent analysis comparing turkey remains at Mesa Verde, one such village in southern Colorado, to samples from modern turkey populations in the Rio Grande Valley of north central New Mexico determined that the latter birds descended in part from turkeys cultivated at Mesa Verde, with shared genetic markers appearing only after 1280. Thus, researchers concluded that ___________.
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) conditions of the terrains in the Rio Grande Valley and Mesa Verde had greater similarities in the past than they do today.
B) some Ancestral Puebloans migrated to the Rio Grande Valley in the late 1200s and carried farming practices with them.
C) Indigenous peoples living in the Rio Grande Valley primarily planted crops and did not cultivate turkeys before 1280.
D) the Ancestral Puebloans of Mesa Verde likely adopted the farming practices of Indigenous peoples living in other regions.
Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of Ancestral Puebloans’ migration to the Rio Grande Valley. The text states that in the late 1200s C.E., the Ancestral Puebloan civilization abandoned villages in its original homeland, which included the Mesa Verde site. The text goes on to say that recent genetic analysis has demonstrated
that the modern turkey population in the Rio Grande Valley descends partly from the ancient turkeys raised at Mesa Verde, and that the genetic markers shared by the two turkey populations first appeared at Mesa Verde only after 1280 C.E. Therefore, it can reasonably be concluded that some Ancestral Puebloans migrated to the Rio Grande Valley in the late 1200s and carried their agricultural practices—including the farming of turkeys— to their new home.
Choice A is incorrect because the text never compares the condition of the Rio Grande Valley’s terrain to that of Mesa Verde’s terrain, either in the present or in the past.
Choice C is incorrect. Although genetic analysis has demonstrated that the modern turkey population in the Rio Grande valley descended in part from the turkey population raised by the Ancestral Puebloans of Mesa Verde before their migration to the valley in 1280, this finding doesn’t eliminate the possibility that Indigenous peoples living in the valley before 1280 might also have farmed turkeys.
Choice D is incorrect. The text doesn’t consider the possibility that before their migration to the Rio Grande Valley after 1280, the Ancestral Puebloans of Mesa Verde might have adopted turkey farming from an outside Indigenous civilization in another region; instead, the text provides evidence suggesting that the Ancestral Puebloans brought turkey farming to another region— the Rio Grande Valley—after 1280.
Attempt questions like these to improve your accuracy and speed.
18th Question
Question: One challenge when researching whether holding elected office changes a person’s behavior is the problem of ensuring that the experiment has an appropriate control group. To reveal the effect of holding office, researchers must compare people who hold elected office with people who do not hold office but who are otherwise similar to the office-holders. Since researchers are unable to control which politicians win elections, they therefore ____________.
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) struggle to find valid data about the behavior of politicians who do not currently hold office.
B) can only conduct valid studies with people who have previously held office rather than people who presently hold office.
C) should select a control group of people who differ from office holders in several significant ways.
D) will find it difficult to identify a group of people who can function as an appropriate control group for their studies.
Choice D is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the challenge researchers face when studying the effects of holding elected office on a person’s behavior. The text explains that it’s hard for researchers to test for the effects that elected office has on people because finding people to serve as a control group is difficult. The text indicates that a control group needs to be made up of people who share characteristics of the group being tested but don’t have the variable being tested (in this case, holding elected office). Because researchers aren’t able to influence who wins elections, they’re also unable to determine who would serve as an appropriately similar member of a control group. Thus, it logically follows that researchers will find it difficult to identify a group of people who can function as an appropriate control group for their studies.
Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on the struggle to put together a control group for experiments; it doesn’t suggest that finding information about politicians’ behavior is difficult.
Choice B is incorrect because the experiments mentioned in the text are testing the effects of holding elected office on a person’s behavior. Studying people who have already held elected office wouldn’t provide an opportunity to note any behavioral changes that the position might cause.
Choice C is incorrect because the text defines people in a control group as those “who are otherwise similar to the office-holders”; selecting people who differ from the office-holders wouldn’t fit the criteria for an appropriate control group.
Attempt questions like these to improve your accuracy and speed.
19th Question
Question: In his groundbreaking book Bengali Harlem and the Lost Histories of South Asian America, Vivek Bald uses newspaper articles, census records, ships’ logs, and memoirs to tell the ___________ who made New York City their home in the early twentieth century.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) story’s of the South Asian immigrants
B) story’s of the South Asian immigrants’
C) stories of the South Asian immigrants
D) stories’ of the South Asian immigrant’s
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural and possessive nouns. The plural nouns “stories” and “immigrants” correctly indicate that the memoir tells multiple stories of multiple immigrants.
Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun “stories,” not the singular possessive noun “story’s.”
Choice B is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns “stories” and “immigrants,” not the singular possessive noun “story’s” and the plural possessive noun “immigrants’.”
Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns “stories” and “immigrants,” not the plural possessive noun “stories’” and the singular possessive noun “immigrant’s.”
Learn Possessive Noun to better understand it.
20th Question
Question: In her two major series “Memory Test” and “Autobiography,” painter Howardena Pindell explored themes __________ healing, self-discovery, and memory by cutting and sewing back together pieces of canvas and inserting personal artifacts, such as postcards, into some of the paintings.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) of
B) of,
C) of—
D) of:
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a preposition and its complement. No punctuation is needed between the preposition “of” and its complement, the noun phrase “healing, self-discovery, and memory.
Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between a preposition and its complement.
Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between a preposition and its complement.
Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between a preposition and its complement.
Learn Punctuation.
21st Question
Question: Nigerian author Buchi Emecheta’s celebrated literary
oeuvre includes The Joys of Motherhood, a novel about the changing roles of women in 1950s __ a television play about the private struggles of a newlywed couple in Nigeria; and Head Above Water,
her autobiography.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) Lagos, A Kind of Marriage,
B) Lagos; A Kind of Marriage,
C) Lagos, A Kind of Marriage:
D) Lagos; A Kind of Marriage
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of items in a complex series (a series including internal punctuation). In this choice, the semicolon after “Lagos” is conventionally used to separate the first item (“The Joys…Lagos”) and the second item (“A Kind…Nigeria”) in the series. Further, the comma after “Marriage” correctly separates the title “A Kind of Marriage” from the supplementary phrase (“a television…Nigeria”) that describes it.
Choice A is incorrect because the comma after “Lagos” doesn’t match the semicolon used later in the series to separate the second item (“A Kind…Nigeria”) from the third item (“and…autobiography”).
Choice C is incorrect because the comma after “Lagos” doesn’t match the semicolon used later in the series to separate the second item (“A Kind…Nigeria”) from the third item (“and…autobiography”). Additionally, a colon can’t be used in this way to separate the title “A Kind of Marriage” from the supplementary phrase (“a television… Nigeria”) that describes it.
Choice D is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate the title “A Kind of Marriage” from the supplementary phrase (“a television…Nigeria”) that describes it.
Learn Punctuation.
22nd Question
Question: Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie’s 2013 novel Americanah chronicles the divergent experiences of Ifemelu and Obinze, a young Nigerian couple, after high school. Ifemelu moves to the United States to attend a prestigious university. _____________ Obinze travels to London, hoping to start a career there. However, frustrated with the lack of opportunities, he soon returns to Nigeria.
Which choice completes the text with the most
logical transition?
A) Meanwhile,
B) Nevertheless,
C) Secondly,
D) In fact,
Choice A is the best answer. “Meanwhile” logically signals that the action described in this sentence (Obinze’s move to London to pursue a career) is simultaneous with the action described in the previous sentence (Ifemelu’s move to the United States). The first sentence establishes that the actions take place around the same time, referring to the characters’ “divergent experiences” following high school.
Choice B is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the information in this sentence about Obinze’s move to London is true despite the previous information about Ifemelu’s move to the United States. Instead, as the first sentence establishes, Obinze’s move and Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel experiences that occur around the same time.
Choice C is incorrect because “secondly” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second point or reason separate from the previous information about Ifemelu’s move to the United States. Instead, as the first sentence establishes, Obinze’s move and Ifemelu’s moves are related, parallel experiences that occur around the same time.
Choice D is incorrect because “in fact” illogically signals that the information in this sentence emphasizes, modifies, or contradicts the previous information about Ifemelu’s move to the United States. Instead, as the first sentence establishes, Obinze’s move and Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel experiences that occur around the same time.
Learn Conjunction, Adverb, and Clause.
23rd Question
Question: Organisms have evolved a number of surprising adaptations to ensure their survival in adverse conditions. Tadpole shrimp (Triops longicaudatus) embryos, __ can pause development for over ten years during extended periods of drought.
Which choice completes the text with the most
logical transition?
A) in contrast,
B) for example,
C) meanwhile,
D) consequently,
Choice B is the best answer. “For example” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that tadpole shrimp embryos can pause development during extended periods of drought—exemplifies the previous sentence’s claim that organisms have evolved surprising adaptations to survive in adverse conditions.
Choice A is incorrect because “in contrast” illogically signals that the information in this sentence contrasts with the claim about organisms in the previous sentence. Instead, it exemplifies this claim.
Choice C is incorrect because “meanwhile” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is separate from (while occurring simultaneously with) the claim about organisms in the previous sentence. Instead, it exemplifies this claim.
Choice D is incorrect because “consequently” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a consequence, or result, of the claim about organisms in the previous sentence. Instead, it exemplifies this claim.
Learn Conjunction, Adverb, and Clause.
24th Question
Question: In 1933, the Twentieth Amendment to the US Constitution was ratified. The amendment mandates that presidential inaugurations be held on January 20, approximately ten weeks after the November election. ____________ this amendment requires newly elected US senators and representatives to be sworn into their respective offices on January 3.
Which choice completes the text with the most
logical transition?
A) Instead,
B) For instance,
C) Specifically,
D) In addition,
Choice D is the best answer. “In addition” logically signals that the information in this sentence—that the Twentieth Amendment requires newly elected US senators and representatives to be sworn in on January 3 —is separate from and additional to the amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations.
Choice A is incorrect because “instead” illogically signals that the information in the sentence presents an alternative to or substitute for the Twentieth Amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations. Rather, the sentence presents a separate requirement in addition to that one.
Choice B is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the information in the sentence exemplifies the Twentieth Amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations. Instead, the sentence presents a separate requirement in addition to that one.
Choice C is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on the Twentieth Amendment’s mandate concerning presidential inaugurations. Instead, the sentence presents a separate requirement in addition to that one.
Learn Conjunction, Adverb, and Clause.
25th Question
Question: In her poetry collection Thomas and Beulah, Rita Dove interweaves the titular characters’ personal stories with broader historical narratives. She places Thomas’s journey from the American South to the Midwest in the early 1900s within the larger context
of the Great Migration. ____________ Dove sets events from Beulah’s personal life against the backdrop of the US Civil Rights Movement.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Specifically,
B) Thus,
C) Regardless,
D) Similarly,
Choice D is the best answer. “Similarly” logically signals that the information in the sentence—that Dove situates Beulah’s life in the context of the US Civil Rights Movement—is similar to the previous information about Thomas and the Great Migration. Both sentences support the first sentence’s claim that Dove portrays her characters in the context of broader historical narratives.
Choice A is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the information about Beulah in this sentence provides specific details elaborating on the previous information about Thomas. Instead, it’s similar to the previous information about Thomas.
Choice B is incorrect because “thus” illogically signals that the information about Beulah in this sentence is a result or consequence of the previous information about Thomas. Instead, it’s similar to the previous information about Thomas.
Choice C is incorrect because “regardless” illogically signals that the information about Beulah in this sentence is true despite the previous information about Thomas. Instead, it’s similar to the previous
information about Thomas.
Learn Conjunction, Adverb, and Clause.
26th Question
Question: While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Jon Ching is a Los Angeles-based painter.
• He uses the term “flauna” to describe the plant-animal hybrids that he depicts in his surreal paintings.
• “Flauna” is a combination of the words “flora” and “fauna.”
• His painting Nectar depicts a parrot with leaves for feathers.
• His painting Primaveral depicts a snow leopard whose fur sprouts flowers.
The student wants to provide an explanation and example of “flauna.” Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) The term “flauna,” used by Los Angeles-based painter Jon Ching, is a combination of the words “flora” and “fauna.”
B) Jon Ching uses the term “flauna,” a combination of the words “flora” and “fauna,” to describe the subjects of his surreal paintings: plant-animal hybrids such as a parrot with leaves for feathers.
C) Jon Ching, who created Nectar, refers to the subjects of his paintings as “flauna.”
D) The subjects of Nectar and Primaveral are types of “flauna,” a term that the paintings’ creator, Jon Ching, uses when describing his surreal artworks.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides both an explanation and an example of “flauna.” The sentence explains that flauna, a combination of the words “flora” and “fauna,” is a term used by Jon Ching to describe the plant-animal hybrids in his paintings. The sentence also mentions an example of Ching’s flauna: a parrot with leaves for feathers.
Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence partially explains what “flauna” is, it doesn’t provide a full explanation or specific example of Ching’s flauna.
Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence partially explains what “flauna” is and includes a title of a Ching painting, it doesn’t provide a full explanation or specific example of Ching’s flauna.
Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence partially explains what “flauna” is and includes the titles of two Ching paintings, it doesn’t provide a full explanation of Ching’s flauna.
Keep practicing questions like these to become a master of it. Work on your summarizing skills.
27th Question
Question: While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• In the midst of the US Civil War, Susie Taylor escaped slavery and fled to Union-army-occupied St. Simons Island off the Georgia coast.
• She began working for an all-Black army regiment as a nurse and teacher.
• In 1902, she published a book about the time she spent with the regiment.
• Her book was the only Civil War memoir to be published by a Black woman.
• It is still available to readers in print and online.
The student wants to emphasize the uniqueness of Taylor’s accomplishment. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) Taylor fled to St. Simons Island, which was then occupied by the Union army, for whom she began working.
B) After escaping slavery, Taylor began working for an all-Black army regiment as a nurse and teacher.
C) The book Taylor wrote about the time she spent with the regiment is still available to readers in print and online.
D) Taylor was the only Black woman to publish a Civil War memoir.
Choice D is the best answer. By indicating that Taylor’s book was the only Civil War memoir published by a Black woman, this sentence emphasizes the uniqueness, or one-of-a-kind nature, of Taylor’s accomplishment.
Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence describes some of Taylor’s accomplishments, it doesn’t emphasize the uniqueness of them.
Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence describes some of Taylor’s accomplishments, it doesn’t emphasize that they were unique.
Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides information about Taylor’s book, it doesn’t emphasize what made the book unique.
Keep practicing questions like these to become a master of it. Work on your summarizing skills.
You should complete the test within the time limit and practice more and more. That is how you will take the final SAT exam and be able to score 1400+ on the SAT. The explanation of answers makes it easy to learn and progress. You must try to work on your speed. “The harder the question – the greater the score.” This is the 3rd Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 2nd.
Either you can take the 4th Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing or the 3rd Practice Test of SAT Math Module 1st.
- SAT Test 3rd(Math Module 1st)
- SAT Test 4th (Reading and Writing Module 2nd)
- SAT Test 3rd (Reading and Writing Module 1st)
Keep up the hard work, I wish you the best of luck for your future to get admission to your desired college after the SAT.