
SAT QUESTION PAPER: READING AND WRITING TEST PRACTICE
How is your progress going? I am excited to present you the SAT Reading and Writing Test 8. It is a module 2nd. I hope you are scoring well so far. If yes, then you will start to see growth in you in no time. We have designed a format similar to the SAT Examination. You take the SAT Test Reading and Writing Module Second to practice your skills. The best part is that you practice free within the time limit, and there are explanations of the correct answers and tips and tricks to get a perfect score on the SAT.

ABOUT THE SAT MODULES
The SAT is divided into four modules. There are two categories with each divided two modules into. The first category is “Reading and Writing” with two modules. The second category is “Math” with two modules. The one, you will do below is SAT Practice Test Reading and Writing Module 2nd.
The first module has questions ranging from easy to difficult, but the second module only contains difficult questions. If you want to take some other SATs, visit the links below.
- 1st Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 1st Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
SAT READING AND WRITING MODULE 2ND
The second module of the SAT reading and writing also contains four segments: Craft and Structure, Information and Ideas, Standard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas. The questions in Module 2nd are only difficult. In a real SAT exam, you must answer 27 questions within 32 minutes. You will find the same time structure here in this Practice Test.
Instructions for the SAT Real-Time Exam
- Go Back-and-Forth: You will see an arrow in the right or left corner of the slide. Click to move forward or backward.
- Interaction: At the top right corner, you will see a press button that tells you there are some interactive components in the slide. Click the press button to find out.
- Timer: On the top of the slide, you will see the timer, we have divided the time based on the average of the module 2nd. (The 32 minutes are equally divided into 27 questions’ time.) It is best to note the time before and after finishing the practice test to measure, “Was it within 32 minutes or not?”
- Image: You can click on graph, table, or other images to expand and see it on full screen.
- Mute: You can click on the speaker button to mute the audio.
- Mobile: You cannot take the real exam on mobile, but our practice exam you can give on mobile.
- Tips: This article will help you learn more about the SAT Exams. SAT: EVERYTHING ABOUT THE SAT
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SAT READING AND WRITING QUESTION SOLUTIONS WITH EXPLANATION
Do not open the tabs before finishing the practice test above! We have compiled all the solutions and their explanations here for your convenience. We will also give you some tips or advice to help you understand them better. You’ll see ‘why this answer is correct’ and ‘why this is incorrect.’
Reading and Writing Answers and Explanations
The color green shows the correct answer, red shows the incorrect answer, and blue shows tips or tricks.
1st Question
Question: The following text is from Betty Smith’s 1943 novel A Tree Grows in Brooklyn. Francie, a young girl, visits the library often.
Francie thought that all the books in the world were in that library and she had a plan about reading all the books in the world. She was reading a book a day in alphabetical order and not skipping the dry ones. She remembered that the first author had been Abbott. She had been reading a book a day for a long time now and she was still in the B’s. Already she had read about bees and buffaloes, Bermuda vacations and Byzantine architecture. For all her enthusiasm, she had to admit that some of the B’s had been hard going. But Francie was a reader. ©1947 by Betty Smith
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To illustrate Francie’s enjoyment of an unusual topic
B) To explain why Francie prefers reading over other activities
C) To portray Francie’s determination to meet a goal
D) To describe a book that Francie greatly admires
Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to portray Francie’s determination to reach her goal of reading all the books in the world. The text indicates that to achieve this aim, Francie works systematically and persistently: she reads all the books in the library in alphabetical order and devotes much time and effort to the project, finishing one book per day over a long period of time. The text then suggests that even though she progresses slowly (“she was still in the B’s”) and that she struggled with some books (“some of the B’s had been hard going”), she doesn’t give up because she thinks of herself as “a reader.” These details show Francie’s resolve.
Choice A is incorrect. Although the text mentions several topics (bees and buffaloes, Bermuda vacations, and Byzantine architecture) that Francie has read about, it doesn’t indicate that any of these topics are unusual or that she especially enjoyed reading about one of these topics in particular. If anything, the text suggests that she may have found some of these topics to be dull, saying that she even read the “dry ones”— that is, the boring books—and that some of the books were “hard going,” meaning they were difficult to get through.
Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss Francie’s involvement in other activities, only her dedication to reading. Although it’s possible that Francie dedicates herself to reading because she prefers it to other activities, the text doesn’t indicate whether this is the case.
Choice D is incorrect. Although the text mentions one author (Abbott) whose book Francie has read as well as several topics (bees and buffaloes, Bermuda vacations, and Byzantine architecture) she
has encountered, the text doesn’t say whether Francie admires any of the books she’s read so far. Instead, the text focuses on the time and effort she devotes to reaching her goal of reading all the books in the world—even ones she doesn’t enjoy.
This is time-consuming, you can guess if you take time to read. Practice more to improve your speed.
2nd Question
Question: Researchers have long hypothesized that woolly mammoths were hunted to extinction in North America by humans using spears with grooved tips known as Clovis points. One anthropologist set out to test this hypothesis. Using a mechanical spear-thrower, he launched spears with Clovis points into mounds of clay—substitutes for the animals’ large bodies. The projectiles generally penetrated only a few inches into the clay, an amount insufficient to have harmed most woolly mammoths. This led the anthropologist to conclude that hunters using spears with Clovis points likely weren’t the principal drivers of the extinction.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To argue for the significance of new findings amid an ongoing debate among researchers
B) To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the method used in an experiment
C) To summarize two competing hypotheses and a major finding associated with each one
D) To describe an experiment whose results cast doubt on an established hypothesis
Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose of the text, which is to describe an experiment whose results cast doubt on an established hypothesis. The text begins by noting that researchers have long believed that woolly mammoths were hunted to extinction in North America by humans using spears with Clovis points. The text then describes an experiment
conducted by an anthropologist to test this hypothesis. According to the text, the results of the experiment led the anthropologist to conclude that hunters using spears with Clovis points likely weren’t the primary cause of the extinction. The anthropologist’s results cast doubt on the long-held hypothesis presented at the beginning of the text and suggest that woolly mammoths may have become extinct in North America due to some other cause.
Choice A is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that researchers have been involved in an ongoing debate. On the contrary, the text suggests that most researchers agree on the cause of the woolly mammoth’s extinction in North America.
Choice B is incorrect because the text never mentions any advantages or disadvantages of the method used in the experiment, focusing instead on the results achieved using that method.
Choice C is incorrect because the text addresses only one hypothesis, that mammoths were hunted to extinction in North America by humans using spears with Clovis points. Rather than present a competing hypothesis, the text explains how one anthropologist designed an experiment to test this long-held hypothesis.
This is time-consuming, you can guess if you take time to read. Practice more to improve your speed.
3rd Question
Question: The people of medieval Europe have traditionally been seen as uninterested in cleanliness and hygiene, but modern research has shown that this is largely a myth. According to historian Eleanor Janega, most medieval towns in Europe had at least one public bathhouse, which often offered both full-immersion baths and—more affordably—steam baths. While such amenities were available mainly to town dwellers, regular bathing in rivers and streams or daily sponge baths at home were common practices throughout medieval Europe.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion?
A) It asserts that in medieval Europe steam baths were more popular in rural areas than in urban ones.
B) It describes a limitation of earlier historians’ studies of medieval European bathing habits.
C) It concedes that not all people in medieval Europe had access to public bathhouses.
D) It explains why Janega decided to study the popularity of public bathhouses in medieval Europe.
Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively describes the function of the underlined portion. The text discusses the long-standing misconception that people in medieval Europe were uninterested in cleanliness and hygiene. As evidence that this idea is false, the text cites historian Eleanor Janega’s assertion that in medieval Europe, towns usually had at least one bathhouse, where people could take immersion baths or steam baths for a fee. The underlined portion then notes that mainly town dwellers had access to these bathhouses. The remainder of the text explains that those who lacked such access were nonetheless able to bathe in outdoor waterways or take sponge baths at home. Therefore, the underlined portion concedes that some people in medieval Europe lacked access
to public bathhouses.
Choice A is incorrect. The underlined portion establishes that amenities such as steam baths were mainly available to town dwellers, which suggests in turn that steam baths were largely unavailable to people in rural areas. Thus, the distinction made by the underlined portion is not between the popularity of steam baths in towns versus their lack of popularity in rural areas but instead between their presence in towns and absence in rural areas.
Choice B is incorrect. Although the text does explain that recent historians have disproved the idea that medieval Europeans rarely bathed, it doesn’t attribute that misconception to earlier historians of medieval Europe or suggest that their research was subject to limitations. Moreover, the underlined portion addresses a limitation of life in medieval Europe, not of historical research.
Choice D is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t address why historian Eleanor Janega decided to study the popularity of public bathhouses in medieval Europe—nor does any portion of the text. The text mentions Janega in passing, but it doesn’t go into detail about why she decided to study the popularity of public bathhouses in medieval Europe.
This is time-consuming, you can guess if you take time to read. Practice more to improve your speed.
4th Question
Question: Scholarly accounts of the Chicano movement—a movement that advocated for the social, political, and cultural empowerment of Mexican Americans and reached its zenith in the 1960s and 1970s—tend to focus on the most militant, outspoken figures in movement, making it seem uniformly radical. Geographer Juan Herrera has shown, however, that if we shift our focus toward the way the movement manifested in comparatively low-profile neighborhood institutions and projects, we see participants espousing an array of political orientations and approaches to community activism.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?
A) It presents a trend in scholarship on the Chicano movement that the text claims has been reevaluated by researchers in light of Herrera’s work on the movement’s participants.
B) It identifies an aspect of the Chicano movement that the text implies was overemphasized by scholars due to their own political orientations.
C) It describes a common approach to studying the Chicano movement that, according to the text, obscures the ideological diversity of the movement’s participants.
D) It summarizes the conventional method for analyzing the Chicano movement, which the text suggests creates a misleading impression of the effectiveness of neighborhood institutions and projects.
Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The text begins by mentioning scholarly accounts of the Chicano movement, which the underlined portion describes as tending “to focus on the most militant, outspoken figures in the movement,” making the movement as a whole seem uniformly radical. The text then indicates that the work of geographer Juan Herrera shows that focusing less on such militant figures and instead paying more attention to manifestations of the Chicano movement in less widely known neighborhood institutions and projects would reveal that the movement’s participants embraced a range of political orientations and approaches. Thus, the underlined portion describes a common approach to studying the Chicano movement that, according to the text, obscures the ideological diversity of the movement’s participants.
Choice A is incorrect. Though the underlined portion does present a trend in scholarship on the Chicano movement, the text does not indicate that other scholars have reevaluated their methods in light of Herrera’s work. It only indicates that Herrera’s work suggests that the work of those other scholars does not provide a complete picture of the Chicano movement.
Choice B is incorrect. Though the underlined portion does identify an aspect of the Chicano movement that the text indicates has been overemphasized, the text does not discuss the political orientations of the scholars whose work is mentioned in the text.
Choice D is incorrect. Though the underlined portion does summarize the conventional method for analyzing the Chicano movement, the rest of the text does not address the effectiveness of “comparatively low-profile neighborhood institutions and projects.” Instead, the text suggests that those projects were led by people with a variety of approaches to community activism.
This is time-consuming, you can guess if you take time to read. Practice more to improve your speed.
5th Question
Question: Elizabeth Asiedu has identified a negative correlation between the share of developing countries’ economies derived from natural-resource extraction and those countries’ receipts of foreign investment. This may appear counterintuitive—resource extraction requires initial investments (in extractive technology, for instance) at scales best met by multinational corporations—but Asiedu notes that natural-resource industries’ boom-bust cycle can destabilize local currencies and increase developing countries’ vulnerability to external shocks, creating levels of uncertainty to which foreign investors are typically averse.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) Although it may seem surprising that foreign investment declines in developing countries as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of those countries’ economies, that decline happens because resource extraction requires initial investments too large for foreign investors to supply.
B) Although developing countries tend to become less dependent on foreign investment as natural-resource industries make up a larger share of their economies, this change may not occur if the boom-bust cycle of those industries destabilizes local currencies or increases countries’ vulnerability to external shocks.
C) Although one might expect that foreign investment would increase as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of developing countries’ economies, the opposite happens because heavy reliance on natural resources can lead to unattractive conditions for investors.
D) Although foreign investors tend to avoid initial investments in natural-resource industries in developing countries, foreign investment may increase significantly as those industries stabilize and the risks associated with them decline.
Choice C is the best answer because it accurately states the main idea of the text. According to the text, contrary to what some might expect, foreign investment is typically lower in developing countries whose economies are more dependent on natural resource extraction. The text explains that high reliance on natural resource extraction can subject a developing country to economic shocks that can destabilize the local currency and introduce economic uncertainty that tends to keep investors away. In other words, although we may think otherwise, foreign investors are less willing to invest in projects in developing countries whose economies are heavily dependent on natural resource extraction because those economies tend to exhibit instability that investors want to avoid.
Choice A is incorrect. The text does indicate that foreign investment is typically lower in developing countries whose economies are more dependent on natural-resource extraction; the text further indicates that natural-resource extraction requires substantial initial investments (to acquire things like required technologies) for which there are fewer investors willing to participate at this stage than one might think. But the text does not implicate the cost of these initial investments as a reason why foreign investment is less widely available than some might think.
Choice B is incorrect. The text indicates that greater dependence on natural resource extraction makes a developing country less appealing to foreign investors because of associated economic instability. Rather than arguing that the goal of developing countries is to become less dependent on foreign investment, as the phrasing of choice B suggests, the text focuses only on why foreign investors become less involved with such countries, which suggests that more investment would be preferable.
Choice D is incorrect. Although the text indicates that natural resource extraction requires substantial initial investments (to acquire things like required technologies) and that there are fewer likely investors willing to participate at this stage than one might think, the text does not address what investors are likely to do over time as the industry stabilizes itself.
This is time-consuming, you can guess if you take time to read. Practice more to improve your speed.
6th Question
Question: Many literary theorists distinguish between fabula, a narrative’s content, and syuzhet, a narrative’s arrangement and presentation of events. In the film The Godfather Part II, the fabula is the story of the Corleone family, and the syuzhet is the presentation of the story as it alternates between two timelines in 1901 and 1958. But literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin maintained that fabula and syuzhet are insufficient to completely describe a narrative—he held that systematic categorizations of artistic phenomena discount the subtle way in which meaning is created by interactions between the artist, the work, and the audience.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) Literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin argued that there are important characteristics of narratives that are not fully encompassed by two concepts that other theorists have used to analyze narratives.
B) Literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin claimed that meaning is not inherent in a narrative but is created when an audience encounters a narrative so that narratives are interpreted differently by different people.
C) The storytelling methods used in The Godfather Part II may seem unusually complicated, but they can be easily understood when two concepts from literary theory are utilized.
D) Narratives that are told out of chronological order are more difficult for audiences to understand than are narratives presented chronologically.
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by explaining that many literary theorists rely on the concepts of fabula (a narrative’s content) and syuzhet (a narrative’s arrangement and presentation of events) and illustrates these concepts by explaining how they can be applied to the film The Godfather Part II. The text then discusses how Mikhail Bakhtin, a literary theorist, argued that fabula and syuzhet can fully describe a narrative since systematic categorizations such as these fail to account for all the ways in which interactions between the artist, the work, and the audience produce meaning. Thus, the main idea is that Bakhtin argued that there are important characteristics of narratives that are not fully encompassed by two concepts that other theorists have used to analyze narratives.
Choice B is incorrect because according to the text, Mikhail Bakhtin believed that meaning was created through the interactions of the artist, narrative, and the audience, not simply through the interaction between the audience and the narrative; moreover, the text doesn’t address whether Bakhtin focused on the ways in which different people interpret narratives differently.
Choice C is incorrect. Although the text implies that the storytelling methods used in The Godfather Part II are complicated, it discusses the film only to illustrate how the concepts of fabula and syuzhet may be applied to a narrative. The film’s storytelling methods aren’t the primary focus of the text.
Choice D is incorrect. The text discusses The Godfather Part II, whose narrative doesn’t adhere to a single chronological order, only to illustrate the concepts of fabula (a narrative’s content) and syuzhet (the narrative’s arrangement and presentation of events). The primary focus of this text isn’t the structure of this film or of other narratives that are told out of chronological order; moreover, the text doesn’t consider whether such structures make it harder for audiences to understand narratives.
Skim through the paragraph to find the conclusion or main theme/idea.
7th Question

Question: A student is researching the trends in the topics submitted to a national science fair for high school students. The graph shows the number of submissions by topic that were made each year. Based on the data in the graph, the student claims that there were more medicine and health research topics submitted in 2019 than any other year.
Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to support the underlined claim?
A) In 2016, the number of cellular and molecular biology topic submissions was the same as the number of animal science topic submissions.
B) In 2019, there were more physics and space science topic submissions than there were medicine and health topic submissions.
C) The lowest number of animal science topic submissions in a year was approximately 95 in 2016.
D) The highest number of medicine and health topic submissions during the period shown is approximately 285 in 2019.
Choice D is the best answer because it effectively uses data from the graph to support the underlined claim that more medicine and health topics were submitted to a national science fair in 2019 than in any of the other years shown. This choice indicates that the approximately 285 medicine and health topics submitted in 2019 are more than the number of medicine and health submissions in any other year shown—a description that is supported by information in the graph, which shows that medicine and health topic submissions were below 250 in 2016, 2017, and 2018, but above 250 (approximately 285 submissions) in 2019.
Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t support the underlined claim or accurately reflects the information in the graph. This choice refers to 2016 and discusses cellular and molecular biology and animal science, whereas the underlined claim refers to 2019 and discusses medicine and health. Moreover, the claim that in 2016 there were equal numbers of submissions in the cellular and molecular biology category and in the animal science category is contradicted by the graph, which shows approximately 200 submissions and 50 submissions, respectively, for those categories in 2016.
Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately reflect the information in the graph. This choice claims that in 2019 there were more physics and space submissions than there were medicine and health submissions, but the graph shows that there were approximately 100 space and science submissions that year and approximately 285 medicine and health submissions.
Choice C is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately reflect the information in the graph or support the underlined claim about medicine and health research topics. This choice claims that there were approximately 95 submissions for the animal science category in 2016, but the graph shows that the number was closer to 50 in 2016.
Don’t get fooled by the underlined part and just read it, better skim through the paragraph and data after reading the underlined part.
8th Question
Question: Fish whose DNA has been modified to include genetic material from other species are known as transgenic. Some transgenic fish have genes from jellyfish that result in fluorescence (that is, they glow in the dark). Although these fish were initially engineered for research purposes in the 1990s, they were sold as pets in the 2000s and can now be found in the wild in creeks in Brazil. A student in a biology seminar who is writing a paper on these fish asserts that their escape from Brazilian fish farms into the wild may have significant negative long-term ecological effects.
Which quotation from a researcher would best support the student’s assertion?
A) “In one site in the wild where transgenic fish were observed, females outnumbered males, while in another the numbers of females and males were equivalent.”
B) “Though some presence of transgenic fish in the wild has been recorded, there are insufficient studies of the impact of those fish on the ecosystems into which they are introduced.”
C) “The ecosystems into which transgenic fish are known to have been introduced may represent a subset of the ecosystems into which the fish have actually been introduced.”
D) “Through interbreeding, transgenic fish might introduce the trait of fluorescence into wild fish populations, making those populations more vulnerable to predators.”
Choice D is the best answer because this quotation would best support the student’s assertion that the escape of transgenic fish from Brazilian fish farms into the wild may have significant negative long-term ecological effects. The text explains that transgenic fish have DNA that includes genetic material from other species, that some transgenic fish have genes from jellyfish that make them glow in the dark, and that glow-in-the-dark transgenic fish can now be found in the wild in Brazilian creeks. The quotation indicates why the escape of these fish may have negative long-term ecological effects: glow-in-the-dark transgenic fish might introduce fluorescence into wild fish populations by breeding with wild fish, causing wild fish to glow in the dark and thereby allowing predators to prey on them much more easily.
Choice A is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t mention any negative effects of the introduction of fluorescent transgenic fish into the wild. The quotation merely compares the ratio of females to males at two sites in the wild where transgenic fish have been observed.
Choice B is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t support the idea that the escape of fluorescent transgenic fish from Brazilian fish farms may have significant negative long-term ecological effects. Rather, the quotation suggests that more research is needed to understand the effects.
Choice C is incorrect because this quotation supports the idea that transgenic fish may be present in more ecosystems than has been observed; it doesn’t address whether the presence of fluorescent transgenic fish affects these ecosystems.
As suggested in the question, focus on the assertion, and read through the paragraph to conclude it.
9th Question

Question: Inés Ibáñez and colleagues studied a forest site in which some sugar maple trees receive periodic fertilization with nitrogen to mimic the broader trend of increasing anthropogenic nitrogen deposition in soil. Ibáñez and colleagues modeled the radial growth of the trees with and without nitrogen fertilization under three different climate scenarios (the current climate, moderate change, and extreme change). Although they found that climate change would negatively affect growth, they concluded that anthropogenic nitrogen deposition could more than offset that effect provided that change is moderate rather than extreme.
Which choice best describes data from the graph that support Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion?
A) Growth with nitrogen under the current climate exceeded growth with nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth without nitrogen under extreme change.
B) Growth without nitrogen under the current climate exceeded growth without nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth with nitrogen under extreme change.
C) Growth with nitrogen under moderate change exceeded growth without nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth without nitrogen under extreme change.
D) Growth with nitrogen under moderate change exceeded growth without nitrogen under the current climate, but the latter exceeded growth with nitrogen under extreme change.
Choice D is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that supports Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion that increasing anthropogenic nitrogen deposition can compensate for the negative effect of climate change on tree growth if that change is moderate but not if it’s extreme. The bar graph shows the growth of sugar maple trees with and without nitrogen fertilization under three different climate-change scenarios: current conditions, moderate change, and extreme change. According to the graph, radial growth without nitrogen fertilization is projected to be about 0.16 centimeters (cm) under current conditions, 0.15 cm under a moderate change, and 0.04 cm under an extreme change. The graph also shows that with nitrogen fertilization, growth is projected to be about 0.18 centimeters under a moderate change but only about 0.06 centimeters under an extreme change. Thus, the data in the graph supports the researchers’ conclusion by showing greater growth for a moderate change using nitrogen fertilization than they do either under current conditions without nitrogen fertilization or under an extreme change with nitrogen fertilization.
Choice A is incorrect. Although it accurately represents the data in the graph, this fact pattern doesn’t support Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion that the decline in radial growth due to climate change will be partly offset by higher levels of anthropogenic nitrogen, but only if a change to the climate is moderate and not if it’s extreme. To support this would require comparing radial growth without nitrogen fertilization under current climate conditions to the growth with nitrogen fertilization under both moderate and extreme changes. This choice mentions only growth with nitrogen fertilization under current climate conditions and moderate change and growth without nitrogen fertilization under an extreme change, which doesn’t provide a basis to determine whether higher nitrogen in the future will be able to offset reduced growth due to climate change.
Choice B is incorrect. Although it accurately represents the data in the graph, this fact pattern doesn’t support Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion that the decline in radial growth due to climate change will be partly offset by higher levels of atmospheric nitrogen, but only if a change to the climate is moderate and not if it’s extreme. The support needed would compare radial growth under the current climate conditions without nitrogen fertilization to the growth with nitrogen fertilization under moderate and extreme changes. This choice mentions only growth without nitrogen fertilization under current conditions and moderate change and growth with nitrogen fertilization under extreme change, which don’t provide a basis to determine whether higher nitrogen in the future will be able to offset reduced growth due to climate change.
Choice C is incorrect. Although it accurately represents the data in the graph, this fact pattern doesn’t support Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion that the decline in radial growth due to climate change
will be partly offset by higher levels of atmospheric nitrogen, but only if a change to the climate is moderate and not if it’s extreme. The support needed would compare radial growth without adding nitrogen under current climate conditions to the growth with nitrogen fertilization under moderate and extreme changes. This choice mentions only the growth with and without nitrogen fertilization under moderate climate change and growth without nitrogen fertilization under extreme change, which don’t provide a basis to determine whether higher nitrogen in the future will be able to offset reduced growth due to climate change.
There are three stages in the graph with a comparison bar, that is how you understand it then move to the paragraph to skim and understand the conclusion based on the graph.
10th Question
Question: “Poetry” is a 1919 poem by Marianne Moore. The poem highlights an ambivalence toward poetry as the speaker acknowledges its merits while also expressing a sense of displeasure, writing ________.
Which quotation from “Poetry” most effectively illustrates the claim?
A) “nor is it valid / to discriminate against ‘business documents and / school-books’; all these phenomena are important.”
B) “One must make a distinction / however: when dragged into prominence by half poets, the result is not / poetry”
C) “when [poems] become so derivative as to become unintelligible, the / same thing may be said for all of us—that we / do not admire what / we cannot understand.”
D) “Reading [poetry], however, with a perfect contempt for it, one discovers that there is in / it after all, a place for the genuine.”
Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from “Poetry” to illustrate the claim that the poem highlights an ambivalence, or a conflicted attitude, toward poetry. In the quotation, the speaker suggests that one might read poetry with “contempt,” or disdain, for it, but even with this negative attitude one will find “a place for the genuine.” Because the quotation expresses conflicting attitudes toward poetry, it effectively illustrates the speaker’s ambivalence in discussing the merits and displeasure of reading poetry.
Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t mention poetry or show ambivalence.
Choice B is incorrect. Although the idea of “half poets” may seem to relate to ambivalence, the speaker mentions only negative attitudes toward certain works and the quotation therefore lacks a contrasting positive or neutral attitude that would be needed to indicate ambivalence.
Choice C is incorrect because the speaker mentions only negative attitudes toward certain works and the quotation therefore lacks a contrasting positive or neutral attitude that would be needed to
indicate ambivalence.
You must know the poem to answer that question or you can guess, that the poems are mostly taken from your school curriculum.
11th Question

Question: Perovskite solar cells convert light into electricity more efficiently than earlier kinds of solar cells, and manufacturing advances have recently made them commercially attractive. One limitation of the cells, however, has to do with their electron transport layer (ETL), through which absorbed electrons must pass. Often the ETL is applied through a process called spin coating, but such ETLs are fairly inefficient at converting input power to output power. André Taylor and colleagues tested a novel spray coating method for applying the ETL. The team produced ETLs of various thicknesses and concluded
that spray coating holds promise for improving the power conversion efficiency of ETLs in perovskite solar cells.
Which choice best describes data from the graph that support Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion?
A) Both the ETL applied through spin coating and the ETL applied through spray coating showed a power conversion efficiency greater than 10% at their lowest-performing thickness.
B) The lowest-performing ETL applied through spray coating had a higher power conversion efficiency than the highest-performing ETL
applied through spin coating.
C) The highest-performing ETL applied through spray coating showed a power conversion efficiency of approximately 13%, while the highest-performing ETL applied through spin coating showed a power conversion efficiency of approximately 11%.
D) There was a substantial difference in power conversion efficiency between the lowest and highest-performing ETLs applied through spray coating.
Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that support Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion that spray coating holds promise for improving the power conversion efficiency of ETLs in perovskite solar cells. The text explains that perovskite solar cells’ efficiency at converting light into electricity is diminished by their electron transport layer (ETL), which is applied through spin coating, but that Taylor’s team devised a new spray coating method for applying the ETL that improves its power conversion efficiency. The graph displays data on the power conversion efficiency of solar cells in tests conducted by Taylor’s team, with bars for both the highest- and lowest-performing ETLs in two data categories: spray coating and spin coating. According to the graph, the lowest-performing ETL applied through spray coating had a power conversion efficiency of between 14% and 16%, while the highest-performing ETL applied through spin coating had a power conversion efficiency of less than 14%. These data confirm that ETLs applied through novel spray coating are more efficient than those applied though traditional spin coating. Thus, the data support Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion about spray coating’s potential value.
Choice A is incorrect. Although this claim correctly describes the data in the graph by stating that both the lowest-performing ETL applied through spin coating and the lowest-performing ETL applied through spray coating had a power conversion efficiency greater than 10%, this relationship in the data doesn’t support or relate to Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion that spray coating promises greater efficiency for solar cells than traditional spin coating does.
Choice C is incorrect. This claim does address the greater power conversion efficiency of the highest-performing ETL applied through spray coating, compared with the highest-performing ETL applied through spin coating. However, it also incorrectly cites the value for the efficiency of the highest-performing ETL applied through spray coating at approximately 13%, instead of a value between 14% and 16%, and the value for the efficiency of the highest-performing ETL applied through spin coating as approximately 11%, instead of a value between 12% and 14%, as shown in the graph.
Choice D is incorrect because Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion is based on the difference in the the power conversion efficiency of ETLs applied through spray coating and that of ETLs applied through spin coating, not on the difference between the highest and lowest-performing ETLs applied through just spray coating.
Skim through it then understand the graph to find the best suitable answer.
12th Question
Question: While attending school in New York City in the 1980s, Okwui Enwezor encountered few works by African artists in exhibitions, despite New York’s reputation as one of the best places to view contemporary art from around the world. According to an arts journalist, later in his career as a renowned curator and art historian, Enwezor sought to remedy this deficiency, not by focusing solely on modern African artists, but by showing how their work fits into the larger context of global modern art and art history.
Which finding, if true, would most directly support the journalist’s claim?
A) As curator of the Haus der Kunst in Munich, Germany, Enwezor organized a retrospective of Ghanaian sculptor El Anatsui’s work entitled El Anatsui: Triumphant Scale, one of the largest art exhibitions devoted to a Black artist in Europe’s history.
B) In the exhibition Postwar: Art Between the Pacific and the Atlantic, 1945–1965, Enwezor and cocurator Katy Siegel brought works by African artists such as Malangatana Ngwenya together with pieces by major figures from other countries, like US artist Andy Warhol and
Mexico’s David Siqueiros.
C) Enwezor’s work as curator of the 2001 exhibition The Short Century: Independence and Liberation Movements in Africa, 1945–1994 showed how African movements for independence from European colonial powers following the Second World War profoundly influenced work by African artists of the period, such as Kamala
Ibrahim Ishaq and Thomas Mukarobgwa.
D) Enwezor organized the exhibition In/sight: African Photographers, 1940 to the Present not to emphasize a particular aesthetic trend but to demonstrate the broad range of ways in which African artists have approached the medium of photography.
Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the arts journalist’s claim about Enwezor’s work as a curator and art historian. In the text, the arts journalist asserts that Enwezor wished not just to focus on modern African artists but also to show “how their work fits into the larger context of global modern art and art history,” or how their work relates to artistic developments and work by other artists elsewhere in the world. The description of Postwar: Art Between the Pacific and the Atlantic, 1945–1965 indicates that Enwezor and Siegel’s exhibition brought works by African artists together with works by artists from other countries, thus supporting the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor sought to show works by African artists in a context of global modern art and art history.
Choice A is incorrect because it describes a retrospective that wouldn’t support the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor wanted to show how works by modern African artists fit into the larger context of global modern art and art history. The description of El Anatsui: Triumphant Scale indicates that the retrospective focused only on the work of a single African artist, El Anatsui. The description doesn’t suggest that the exhibition showed how El Anatsui’s works fit into a global artistic context.
Choice C is incorrect because it describes an exhibition that wouldn’t support the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor wanted to show how works by modern African artists relate to the larger context of global modern art and art history. The description of The Short Century: Independence and Liberation Movements in Africa, 1945–1994 indicates that the exhibition showed how African artists were influenced by movements for independence from European colonial powers following the Second World War. Although this suggests that Enwezor intended the exhibition to place works by African artists in a political context, it doesn’t indicate that the works were placed in a global artistic context.
Choice D is incorrect because it describes an exhibition that wouldn’t support the arts journalist’s claim that Enwezor wanted to show how works by modern African artists relate to the larger context of global modern art and art history. The description of In/sight: African Photographers, 1940 to the Present indicates that the exhibition was intended to reveal the broad range of approaches taken by African photographers, not that the exhibition showed how photography by African artists fits into a global artistic context.
Work on your skimming and understanding skills to answer accurately.
13th Question
Question: For thousands of years, people in the Americas ____________ the bottle gourd, a large bitter fruit with a thick rind, to make bottles, other types of containers, and even musical instruments. Oddly, there is no evidence that any type of bottle gourd is native to the Western Hemisphere; either the fruit or its seeds must have somehow been carried from Asia or Africa.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) to use
B) have used
C) having used
D) using
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is finite and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to act as the subject (in this case, “people in the Americas”), and this choice supplies the finite past perfect tense verb “have used” to indicate what people in the Americas used the gourd for.
Choice A is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to use” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.
Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “having used” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.
Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “using” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.
Work on Tense (Participles), Gerund, and Infinitive to understand better. Learn Tenses.
14th Question
Question: While many video game creators strive to make their
graphics ever more _____________ others look to the past, developing titles with visuals inspired by the “8-bit” games of the 1980s and 1990s. (The term “8-bit” refers to a console whose processor could only handle eight bits of data at once.)
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) lifelike but
B) lifelike
C) lifelike,
D) lifelike, but
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a subordinate clause and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the subordinate clause (“While…lifelike”) and the main clause (“others look to the past”).
Choice A is incorrect because it results in an incomplete sentence with no main clause.
Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the subordinate clause (“While…lifelike”) and the main clause (“others…past”).
Choice D is incorrect because it results in an incomplete sentence with no main clause.
Learn Punctuation and Conjunction.
15th Question
Question: In the 1950s, a man named Joseph McVicker was struggling to keep his business afloat when his sister-in-law Kay Zufall advised him to repurpose the company’s product, a nontoxic, clay-like substance for removing soot from wallpaper, as a modeling putty for kids. In addition, Zufall ___________ selling the product under a child-friendly name: Play-Doh.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) suggested
B) suggests
C) had suggested
D) was suggesting
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the simple past tense verb “suggested” properly indicates that Zufall offered her suggestion for the product’s name in the past. This verb tense is consistent with the previous sentence’s use of a simple past tense verb (“advised”) to describe Zufall’s advice to McVicker in the 1950s.
Choice B is incorrect because the present tense verb “suggests” doesn’t indicate that Zufall offered her suggestion in the past.
Choice C is incorrect because the past perfect verb “had suggested” isn’t consistent with the previous sentence’s use of the simple past tense verb “advised” to describe Zufall’s advice to McVicker.
Choice D is incorrect because the past progressive verb “was suggesting” isn’t consistent with the previous sentence’s use of the simple past tense verb “advised” to describe Zufall’s advice to McVicker.
You should study Past Tenses like Simple Past, Past Continuous, and Past Perfect. Based on here, work on Simple Present or better Learn all Tenses.
16th Question
Question: The life spans of rockfish vary greatly by species. For instance, the colorful calico rockfish (Sebastes dallii) can survive for a little over a _________ the rougheye rockfish (Sebastes aleutianus) boasts a maximum life span of about two centuries.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) decade: while
B) decade. While
C) decade; while
D) decade, while
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a main clause and a subordinate clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause (“the colorful…decade”) and the subordinate clause (“while…centuries”) that provides contrasting information about the life span of rougheye rockfish.
Choice A is incorrect because a colon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and a subordinate clause.
Choice B is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “while.”
Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and a subordinate clause.
Learn Punctuation.
17th Question
Question: The Lion Light system, developed by Kenyan inventor Richard Turere, consists of LED lights installed around the perimeter of livestock pastures. Powered with ___________ the blinking LEDs keep lions away at night, thus protecting the livestock without risking harm to the endangered lions.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) energy collected, by solar panels, during the day
B) energy collected by solar panels during the day
C) energy collected by solar panels during the day,
D) energy, collected by solar panels during the day,
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a supplementary phrase and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase (“powered…day”), which describes how the LEDs are powered, and the main clause (“the blinking… night”).
Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase and the main clause with appropriate punctuation. Furthermore, placing commas around the phrase “by solar panels” suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case.
Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase and the main clause with appropriate punctuation.
Choice D is incorrect. Placing commas around the phrase “collected by solar panels during the day″ suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case.
Learn Punctuation.
18th Question
Question: Materials scientist Marie-Agathe Charpagne and her colleagues believed they could improve on the multi-component alloy NiCoCr, an equal-proportions mixture of nickel (Ni), cobalt (Co), and chromium (Cr), by replacing chromium with ruthenium ________ the alloy that resulted, NiCoRu, turned out to be an unsuitable replacement for NiCoCr.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) (Ru)
B) (Ru) but
C) (Ru),
D) (Ru), but
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction “but” to join the first main clause (“Materials… Ru”) and the second main clause (“the alloy…NiCoCr”).
Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.
Choice B is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.
Learn Punctuation.
19th Question
Question: The Progressive Era in the United States witnessed the rise of numerous Black women’s clubs, local organizations that advocated for racial and gender equality. Among the clubs’ leaders __________ Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin, founder of the Women’s Era Club of Boston.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) was
B) were
C) are
D) have been
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested here is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb “was” agrees in number with the singular subject “Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.”
Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “were” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.”
Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb “are” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.”
Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “have been” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.”
To answer it, you should know the Subject-Verb Agreement: Tense, Singular & Plural.
20th Question
Question: Hegra is an archaeological site in present-day Saudi Arabia and was the second largest city of the Nabataean Kingdom (fourth century BCE to first century CE). Archaeologist Laila Nehmé recently traveled to Hegra to study its ancient __________ into the rocky outcrops of a vast desert, these burial chambers seem to blend seamlessly with nature.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) tombs. Built
B) tombs, built
C) tombs and built
D) tombs built
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “researcher Robert Losey” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “since…Siberia.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that researcher Robert Losey— and not another noun in the sentence—is who uncovered fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia.
Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “researcher Robert Losey’s argument” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “argument” is what uncovered fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun “domestication” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that “domestication” is what uncovered fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “the argument” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “argument” is what uncovered fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia.
Proper English knowledge: Tense, Possessive Noun, Punctuation, and Clause.
21st Question
Question: A species of Byropsis algae produces toxins to avoid being eaten by predators. However, in some cases, the toxins the organism uses to protect itself from predation actually _________ its attractiveness to predators. The Hawaiian sea slug, for example, not only tolerates Byropsis toxins but actually uses them for protection in the same way the algae does.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) is increasing
B) increase
C) increases
D) has increased
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb “increase” agrees in number with the plural subject “toxins.”
Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb “is increasing” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “toxins.”
Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb “increases” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “toxins.”
Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb “has increased” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “toxins.”
To answer correctly, you need to learn Present Indefinite, Present Continuous, Present Perfect Tense, or better learn all Tenses.
22nd Question
Question: After appropriate permissions are granted, a typical archaeological dig begins with a surveyor making a detailed grid of the excavation site. Then, the site is carefully dug, and any artifacts found are recorded and mapped onto the site grid. ___________ the artifacts are removed, cataloged, and analyzed in a laboratory.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) For instance,
B) On the contrary,
C) Earlier,
D) Finally,
Choice D is the best answer. “Finally” logically signals that the actions in this sentence—the removal, cataloging, and analysis of artifacts—are the next and final steps in a process, following the previous actions of surveying, digging, recording, and mapping.
Choice A is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the actions in this sentence are an example of the actions in the previous sentence. Instead, the removal, cataloging, and analysis of artifacts are the next and final steps in a process.
Choice B is incorrect because “on the contrary” illogically signals that the actions in this sentence are directly opposed to the actions in the previous sentence. Instead, the removal, cataloging, and analysis of artifacts are the next and final steps in a process.
Choice C is incorrect because “earlier” illogically signals that the actions in this sentence occur before the actions in the previous sentence. Instead, the removal, cataloging, and analysis of artifacts are the next and final steps in a process.
Learn Adverb and adverbial clauses.
23rd Question
Question: The liquid metals in Earth’s core circulate constantly, and this circulation generates electrical currents that flow between Earth’s North and South magnetic poles. These electrical currents, __________ create a barrier around Earth that protects us from radiation and charged particles coming from space.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) in turn,
B) likewise,
C) nevertheless,
D) in reality,
Choice A is the best answer. “In turn” logically signals that the information in the sentence—that the electrical currents create a protective barrier around Earth—is a result or consequence of the previous information about the circulation of liquid metals generating electrical currents that flow between Earth’s magnetic poles.
Choice B is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the information in the sentence is similar to the previous information about the circulation of liquid metals generating electrical currents that flow between Earth’s magnetic poles. Instead, the new information about the electrical currents is a direct result or consequence of the previous information.
Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the information in the sentence is true despite the previous information about the circulation of liquid metals generating electrical currents that flow between Earth’s magnetic poles. Instead, the new information about the electrical currents is a direct result or consequence of the previous information.
Choice D is incorrect because “in reality” illogically signals that the information in the sentence contradicts the previous information about the circulation of liquid metals generating electrical currents that flow between Earth’s magnetic poles. Instead, the new information about the electrical currents is a direct result or consequence of the previous information.
Learn Adverb and adverbial clauses.
24th Question
Question: Biographer Michael Gorra notes that the novelist Henry James “lived in a world of second thoughts,” frequently tinkering with his novels and stories after their initial publication. However, the differences between the 1881 first edition and the 1908 edition of his novel A Portrait of a Lady are extreme, even by James’s standards; ____________ some critics regard the two editions as two different novels altogether.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) by contrast,
B) in fact,
C) nevertheless,
D) in other words,
Choice B is the best answer. “In fact” logically signals that the critics’ claim at the end of this sentence—that the two editions are essentially two different novels altogether—offers additional emphasis in support of the previous claim that the differences between the editions are extreme.
Choice A is incorrect because “by contrast” illogically signals that the claim at the end of this sentence contrasts with the previous claim about the differences between the editions. Instead, the critics’ opinion offers additional emphasis in support of that claim.
Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the claim at the end of this sentence is true despite the previous claim about the differences between the two editions. Instead, the critics’ opinion offers additional emphasis in support of that claim.
Choice D is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the claim at the end of this sentence is merely paraphrasing the previous claim about the differences between the two editions.
The critics’ opinion adds new information to the previous claim rather than simply paraphrasing it.
Learn Adverb and adverbial clauses.
25th Question
Question: While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• In World War I, US soldiers who were members of the Choctaw Nation in Oklahoma participated in the Choctaw Code Talkers program.
• The Choctaw Code Talkers were trained to relay coded military information in their native language.
• In World War II, the US Army recruited Navajo (Diné) soldiers to transmit coded messages in their native language.
• These soldiers were known as the Navajo Code Talkers.
The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) US soldiers who were members of the Choctaw Nation in Oklahoma used their native language to relay coded information.
B) In World War II, one group of Navajo (Diné) soldiers was known as the Navajo Code Talkers.
C) Both the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers transmitted coded military messages in the soldiers’ native languages.
D) The Choctaw Code Talkers, not the Navajo Code Talkers, served in World War I.
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers by explaining that both groups used their native languages to transmit coded messages for the military.
Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes the Choctaw Code Talkers; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers.
Choice B is incorrect. The sentence introduces the Navajo Code Talkers; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers.
Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity.
You require High-level English, Understanding, Skimming, and Concluding skills for this.
26th Question
Question: While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Meteorites found on Earth are divided into two categories.
• A meteorite that was observed falling to Earth before being recovered is known as a meteorite fall.
• All other meteorites found on Earth are known as meteorite finds.
• There have been about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls.
• There have been over 60,000 recorded meteorite finds.
The student wants to contrast the number of meteorite falls with the number of meteorite finds. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) A meteorite that was observed falling to Earth before being recovered is known as a meteorite fall; all others are known as meteorite finds.
B) Meteorites found on Earth are divided into two categories: meteorite falls and meteorite finds.
C) There have been about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, or meteorites observed falling to Earth.
D) While there have been only about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, there have been over 60,000 meteorite finds.
Choice D is the best answer. The sentence contrasts the number of meteorite falls with the number of meteorite finds, noting that there have been over 60,000 meteorite finds but only about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls.
Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence explains the difference between meteorite falls and meteorite finds, it doesn’t contrast the number of meteorite falls and meteorite finds.
Choice B is incorrect. The sentence indicates the two categories of meteorites found on Earth; it doesn’t contrast the number of meteorite falls and meteorite finds.
Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence notes the number of recorded meteorite falls, it doesn’t contrast this with the number of meteorite finds.
You require High-level English, Understanding, Skimming, and Concluding skills for this.
27th Question
Question: While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Doña María do Carmo Bandeira was a Brazilian botanist.
• Between 1924 and 1941, she collected approximately 800 botanical samples.
• She collected a sample of Polytrichum juniperinum from Serra de Itatiaia in Mauá in February of 1925.
• She collected a sample of Sphagnum gracilescen from Ponte do Inferno in Corcovado in March of 1925.
• Polytrichum juniperinum and Sphagnum gracilescen are both species of moss.
The student wants to emphasize the sample collected from Serra de Itatiaia. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) Doña María do Carmo Bandeira was a botanist notable for collecting approximately 800 botanical samples between 1924 and 1941.
B) Among the many botanical samples Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected was Polytrichum juniperinum, a species of moss she collected from Serra de Itatiaia in 1925.
C) Between 1924 and 1941, Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected many botanical samples, such as Polytrichum juniperinum from Serra de Itatiaia and Sphagnum gracilescen from Ponte do Inferno.
D) Between 1924 and 1941, Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected samples of Polytrichum juniperinum and Sphagnum gracilescen, both species of moss.
Choice B is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the sample collected from Serra de Itatiaia, noting that Bandeira collected a Polytrichum juniperinum sample there in 1925.
Choice A is incorrect. The sentence introduces Bandeira to an audience unfamiliar with her work; it doesn’t emphasize the sample she collected from Serra de Itatiaia.
Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the sample Bandeira collected from Serra de Itatiaia, it doesn’t emphasize this sample over the sample from Ponte do Inferno.
Choice D is incorrect. The sentence provides examples of the botanical samples Bandeira collected; it doesn’t emphasize the sample collected from Serra de Itatiaia.
You require High-level English, Understanding, Skimming, and Concluding skills for this.
You should complete the test within the time limit and practice more and more. That is how you will take the final SAT exam and be able to score 1400+ on the SAT. The explanation of answers makes it easy to learn and progress. You must try to work on your speed. “The harder the question – the greater the score.” This is the 8th Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 2nd.
Either you can take the 8th Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 1st or the 8th Practice Test of SAT Math Module 1st.
- SAT Test 8th (Math Module 1st)
- SAT Test 7th (Reading and Writing Module 2nd)
- SAT Test 8th (Reading and Writing Module 1st)
Keep up the hard work. I wish you the best of luck in your future endeavors to get admission to your desired college after the SAT.