SAT TEST PRACTICE: REAL-TIME EXAM PREPARATION
Have you taken the SAT Exam before? If not, then you are in the right place. We have designed a similar exam format with all the necessary features. You just take the SAT Test Reading and Writing Module First to practice your skills. The best part is that you practice free within the time limit, and there are explanations of the correct answers and tips and tricks to get a perfect score on the SAT.
ABOUT THE SAT MODULES
The SAT is divided into four modules. There are two categories with each divided two modules into. The first category is “Reading and Writing” with two modules. The second category is “Math” with two modules. The one, you will do below is SAT Practice Test Reading and Writing Module 1st.
The first module keeps questions from easy to difficult but the second module only contains difficult questions. If you want to do some other SATs then visit the links below.
- 1st Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Reading And Writing Practice Tests
- 1st Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
- 2nd Module of SAT Math Practice Tests
SAT READING AND WRITING MODULE 1ST
The first module of reading and writing in SAT contains four segments Craft and Structure, Information and Ideas, Standard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas. The questions in Module 1st are from easy to difficult. In a real SAT exam, you must answer 27 questions within 32 minutes. You will find the same information here in this Practice Test.
Instructions for the SAT Real-Time Exam
- Go Back-and-Forth: You will see an arrow in the right or left corner of the slide. Click to move forward or backward.
- Interaction: You will see a press button at the top right corner that tells you there are some interactive components in the slide. Click the press button to find out.
- Timer: On the top of the slide, you will see the timer, we have divided the time based on the average of the module 1st. (The 32 minutes are equally divided into 27 questions’ time.) It is best if you note the time before starting and after finishing the practice test to measure, “Was it within 32 minutes or not?”
- Image: You can click on graph, table, or other images to expand and see it on full screen.
- Mute: You can click on the speaker button to mute the audio.
- Mobile: You cannot take the real exam on mobile, but our practice exam you can give on mobile.
- Tips: This article will help you learn more about the SAT Exams. SAT: EVERYTHING ABOUT THE SAT
SAT TEST 5 READING AND WRITING MODULE 1ST WITH QUESTION AND ANSWER
Do not open the tabs before finishing the practice test above! For your convenience, we have compiled all the solutions and their explanations here. We will also give you some tips or advice to help you understand them better. You’ll see ‘why this answer is correct’ and ‘why this is incorrect.’
Reading and Writing Answers and Explanations
The color Green shows the Correct answer, red shows Incorrect, and blue shows Tips or Tricks.
1st Question
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the writing system created by Sequoyah. In this context, “widespread” means widely accepted or practiced. The text indicates that because Sequoyah’s script accurately represented the spoken sounds of the Cherokee language and was easy to learn, nearly all Cherokee people were able to read and write it soon after it was created. This context demonstrates that the script was widely used by the Cherokee people.
Choice B is incorrect. In this context, “careful” would mean exercised with care and attentive concern. Although the work of creating a writing system likely involved great care, the text indicates that the system was “easy to learn,” which conflicts with the idea that using this system requires a noteworthy amount of care.
Choice C is incorrect because in this context “unintended” means not deliberate. The idea that using Sequoyah’s script was unintentional conflicts directly with the claim that it was easy to learn and used by “over 90% of the Cherokee people” by 1830. In fact, because one had to learn this system, it’s not clear how one could use it unintentionally.
Choice D is incorrect because in this context “infrequent” means rare or not occurring often, which conflicts directly with the claim that “over 90% of the Cherokee people” were using Sequoyah’s script by 1830.
Build your vocabulary before solving questions like these.
2nd Question
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Nuttall’s 1886 research paper. In this context, “acknowledged” means recognized as having a certain status. The text indicates that other researchers recognized Nuttall’s work as groundbreaking because of its “convincing demonstration” related to the age of the ancient sculptures. In other words, the researchers recognized the groundbreaking status of Nuttall’s work.
Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “ensured” would mean to have guaranteed or made sure something was the case. The text states that other researchers gave Nuttall’s work recognition after it was published, but there’s no indication that they contributed to the work or had any involvement that would have allowed them to make sure the work would be groundbreaking.
Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that other researchers “denied,” or refused to admit or accept, that Nuttall’s work was groundbreaking; on the contrary, it indicates that researchers praised the work, recognizing it as groundbreaking due to its “convincing demonstration” related to the age of the ancient sculptures.
Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that other researchers “underestimated,” or undervalued, Nuttall’s work; on the contrary, it indicates that researchers praised the work, recognizing it as groundbreaking due to its “convincing demonstration” related to the age of the ancient sculptures.
Build your vocabulary before solving questions like these.
3rd Question
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of self-government among the Muscogee (Creek) Nation. In this context, “implement” means to carry out or put into effect. The text states that the National Council generates laws, while the principal chief and cabinet officials are responsible for “devising policies and administering services in accordance with” those laws. This context suggests that the principal chief and cabinet officials implement the laws: they put the laws into effect by creating policies and administering services that accord with those laws.
Choice B is incorrect because “presume” in this context would mean to assume based on incomplete information, and the text does not suggest that the principal chief and cabinet officials either made assumptions about the content of the laws or had incomplete information about them.
Choice C is incorrect because in this context “improvise” would mean to create something without preparation, and the text does not suggest that the principal chief and cabinet officials create policies and administer services without advance preparation.
Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the principal chief and cabinet officials “mimic,” or imitate, the laws generated by the National Council. To mimic laws would mean to generate new laws that are imitations of existing laws, but the text indicates that the National Council, not the principal chief and cabinet officials, is responsible for generating laws. Instead of generating laws, the principal chief and cabinet officials put laws into effect by “devising policies and administering services in accordance with” the laws.
Build your vocabulary before solving questions like these.
4th Question
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Three Sisters intercropping system. As used in this context, “intricate” would mean made up of complexly related elements. The text indicates that in the Three Sisters system, maize, squash, and beans form a “web of relations” in which the crops interact in various ways. The text’s description of these interactions—the bean vines growing on the maize stalks, the squash vines keeping weeds away, and the beans adding nutrients that the maize and squash use—provides context suggesting that this “web of relations” is intricate.
Choice A is incorrect because describing the relationship among the crops in the Three Sisters system as “indecipherable,” or impossible to comprehend, would not make sense in context. Although the text presents the relationship as complex, the text’s description of the role that each crop plays makes it clear that the relationship is well understood, not indecipherable.
Choice B is incorrect because the text discusses the practical benefits that each plant in the Three Sisters system provides to other members of the system, showing that the relationship among the crops that make up the system is not “ornamental,” or mainly serving a decorative purpose.
Choice C is incorrect because describing the relationship among the crops in the Three Sisters system as “obscure,” or unknown or poorly understood, would not make sense in context. Although the text presents the relationship as complex, the text’s description of the role that each crop plays makes it clear that the relationship is well understood, not obscure.
Build your vocabulary before solving questions like these.
5th Question
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of bronze- and brass-casting techniques used by the Igun Eronmwon guild. In this context “adhere to” would mean to act in accordance with. The text states that although members of the Igun Eronmwon guild typically do something with techniques that have been passed down since the thirteenth century, they “don’t strictly observe every tradition.” By establishing a contrast with not always following traditions, the context suggests that guild members do typically adhere to traditional techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because in this context “experiment with” would mean to do something new with. Although using motors rather than manual bellows is presented as a new approach, the text establishes a contrast between what the guild members typically do with techniques that have been passed down over centuries and the idea that the members “don’t strictly observe every tradition.” The phrase “experiment with” wouldn’t support the contrast because regularly trying new things with the techniques would be an example of not strictly following all traditions.
Choice C is incorrect because in this context “improve on” would mean to make better. Although using motors rather than manual bellows might be an improved approach, the text establishes a contrast between what the guild members typically do with techniques that have been passed down over centuries and the idea that the members “don’t strictly observe every tradition.” The phrase “improve on” wouldn’t support the contrast because regularly making changes to the techniques would be an example of not strictly following all traditions.
Choice D is incorrect because in this context “grapple with” would mean to try hard to solve a difficult problem. Although bronze- and brass-casting are likely challenging tasks, nothing in the text suggests that the guild members have any particular difficulties with the techniques passed down since the thirteenth century.
Build your vocabulary before solving questions like these.
6th Question
Choice C is the best answer because the tone is reflective, as Sarah contemplates the letter and walks slowly, taking in her surroundings.
Choice A is incorrect. While there is some apprehension, the overall tone is more introspective than tense.
Choice B is incorrect because the description of apprehension in Sarah’s feelings suggests a more serious tone.
Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication of anger in the passage.
Consider how the character feels in the context of their actions and surroundings when determining tone.
7th Question
Choice B is the best answer because the passage focuses on the research into fish cardiac regeneration with the hope of applying the findings to human medicine.
Choice A is incorrect. The passage isn’t about superiority, but about the research opportunity.
Choice C is incorrect because the passage is more focused on the research implications than on comparative anatomy.
Choice D is incorrect. While heart disease is mentioned, the focus is on future medical advancements.
Identify the main argument by paying attention to what the author is trying to achieve (in this case, the potential medical application).
8th Question
Choice C is the best answer because “Resulting” is the correct participial phrase to indicate the outcome of the previous action.
Choice A is incorrect because “Resulted” is incorrect because it doesn’t properly link to the rest of the sentence.
Choice B is incorrect because this is grammatically incorrect.
Choice D is incorrect. This would incorrectly change the tense and meaning.
Ensure that participial phrases correctly describe actions or results of prior events in the sentence. Learn Tenses and Participles.
9th Question
Choice C is the best answer because “Led” is the correct past tense of “lead,” which matches the historical context.
Choice A is incorrect because “Leads” is Present Tense and incorrect in this historical context.
Choice B is incorrect because this uses Past Perfect unnecessarily.
Choice D is incorrect. The continuous tense doesn’t match the event’s timeline.
Always ensure the verb tense matches the time frame of the passage’s events. Learn Tenses to understand better.
10th Question
Choice D is the best answer because the data shows that Species A consistently grows more than Species B each week.
Choice A is incorrect because the table shows that Species A grows faster.
Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence to support this claim in the table.
Choice C is incorrect. Species A grows at a faster rate than Species B.
Always examine the data carefully for trends or patterns before answering.
11th Question
Choice B is the best answer because “Governments” is a plural noun, so it should be followed by the plural verb “respond.”
Choice A is incorrect because “Responds” is incorrect because it doesn’t agree with the plural subject.
Choice C is incorrect because this would incorrectly change the tense.
Choice D is incorrect. This creates a sentence fragment.
Always check for subject-verb agreement, especially with plural subjects like “governments.” Learn Plural Nouns and Tenses.
12th Question
Choice C is the best answer because this sentence effectively combines the ideas from both sentences in a concise and clear way.
Choice A is incorrect because this combination is awkward and repetitive.
Choice B is incorrect because this does not integrate the information smoothly.
Choice D is incorrect. This reorders the information in a less logical way.
When combining sentences, aim for clarity and fluency without losing essential details.
13th Question
Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that the narrator of “The Yellow Wallpaper” has mixed feelings about her surroundings. She says she is “really getting quite fond of the big room,” a positive sentiment, but also describes the room’s wallpaper as “horrid,” a negative sentiment. Since some of her feelings about her surroundings are positive and others are negative,
they are best described as mixed.
Choice A is incorrect because though the narrator describes the room’s wallpaper as “irritating,” a negative sentiment, she does not mention a positive sentiment. Thus, the quotation does not effectively illustrate the claim that the narrator has mixed feelings about her surroundings.
Choice B is incorrect because it describes how the appearance of the room’s wallpaper changes at night but does not mention the narrator’s feelings about her surroundings.
Choice D is incorrect because though the narrator describes the room’s wallpaper as “repellant,” a negative sentiment, she does not mention a positive sentiment. Thus, the quotation does not effectively illustrate the claim that the narrator has mixed
feelings about her surroundings.
Understand every ounce of meaning in the paragraph, especially the sentence of the blank. Here, the keyword is ‘mixed feeling,’ find the option that shows mixed feelings.
14th Question
Choice D is the best answer because it provides the most direct support from the table for the claim that the plants growing in close proximity to other plants gained an advantage at an early developmental stage. The table shows the total number of juvenile plants from five species that were found growing on bare ground and in patches of vegetation as well as the percentage of the total number of each species that were growing in patches of vegetation. For each of the five species, more than 50% of the juvenile plants were growing in patches of vegetation. The text notes, however, that a random distribution of plants across the landscape should result in only about 15% of the plants being found in patches of vegetation. In other words, for each of the five species, the percentage of juvenile plants found growing in patches of vegetation was substantially higher than could be explained by chance alone. This finding supports the claim in the text: if plants growing in patches are over-represented among plants that have survived to the juvenile stage, as the data show they are, then it suggests that it’s advantageous for plants at an early stage of development to grow in patches of vegetation.
Choice A is incorrect because the statement that less than 75% of juvenile plants were found growing in patches of vegetation, while true, doesn’t clearly support the claim that the plants growing in close proximity to other plants gained an advantage at an early developmental stage. Saying that less than 75% of plants were found in patches doesn’t indicate how the percentage growing in patches
compares with the percentage that would be expected to grow in patches on the basis of chance alone, which is the information necessary to evaluate whether the claim in the text has support in the table. Put another way, if the percentage of plants found growing in patches was 15% or less, it would be true that less than 75% were found in patches, but the data would in fact weaken the claim in
the text, not strengthen it, since the data would show that growing in patches wasn’t advantageous.
Choice B is incorrect because only 12 plants of this species were found growing in patches, which was the lowest number of any species, not the greatest number. Additionally, even if it were true that this species had the greatest number of plants growing in patches, the finding would be irrelevant to the claim that plants of all five species gained an advantage by growing in close proximity to other plants.
Choice C is incorrect because 59.1% of the plants of these species were found growing in patches, which is a far greater percentage, not a lower percentage, than what would be expected if plants were randomly distributed (around 15%). Additionally, if it were true that the percentage of plants growing in patches was lower for these species than what would be expected from chance alone, that finding would weaken, not strengthen, the claim that growing in patches is advantageous.
A time-consuming question, don’t spend too much time on it, just guess the answer if it is taking time. The question rank is 14, the higher the rank – the higher marks you will get. So save time for further questions.
15th Question
Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would support the researchers’ hypothesis about the plants’ dependence on dissolving rock. The text indicates that the roots of the two plant species grow directly into quartzite rock, where hairs on the roots secrete acids that dissolve the rock. The researchers hypothesize that the plants depend on this process because dissolving rock opens spaces for the roots to grow and releases phosphates that provide the plants with phosphorous, a vital nutrient. If the plants carry out this process of dissolving rock even when the rock already has spaces into which the roots could grow, that would support the researchers’ hypothesis because it suggests that the plants are getting some advantage—such as access to phosphorous—from the action of dissolving rock. If the plants don’t benefit from dissolving rock, they would be expected to grow in the cracks that already exist, as doing so would mean that the plants don’t have to spend energy creating and secreting acids; if, however, the plants create new entry points by dissolving rock even when cracks already exist, that would support the hypothesis that they depend on dissolving rock for some benefit.
Choice A is incorrect because the existence of soil-inhabiting members of the Velloziaceae family with similar root structures to those of the two species discussed in the text wouldn’t support the researchers’ hypothesis that the species discussed in the text depend on dissolving rock. If other such members exist, that might suggest that the root structures can serve more functions than secreting acids to dissolve rock (since dissolving rock may not be necessary for plants living in soil), but that wouldn’t suggest anything about whether the species discussed in the text benefit from dissolving rock.
Choice B is incorrect because differences in the proportions of citric and malic acid secreted by the two species would be irrelevant to the hypothesis that the plants depend on dissolving rock. There’s no information in the text to suggest that the proportion of each acid has any bearing on the process of dissolving rock or on any benefits the plants might receive from that process.
Choice D is incorrect because if the two species thrive on rocks without phosphates, that would weaken the researchers’ hypothesis that the plants depend on dissolving rock partly because dissolving rock gives them access to phosphates. If the plants can survive on rocks without getting a vital nutrient by dissolving those rocks, then either the nutrient isn’t actually vital for those plants or they can get the nutrient in some way other than by dissolving rocks.
A time-consuming question, don’t spend too much time on it, just guess the answer if it is taking time. The question rank is 15, the higher the rank – the higher marks you will get. So save time for further questions.
16th Question
Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of the relationship between atmospheric carbon dioxide and sauropod body size. The text establishes that sauropods evolved to reach enormous sizes, and it notes that some scientists have asserted that the cause of this phenomenon was increased plant production that resulted from increased atmospheric carbon dioxide. The text goes on to state, however, that atmospheric carbon dioxide levels didn’t increase around the time of important periods in sauropods’ evolution of larger body sizes. If significant periods of sauropod evolution toward larger sizes occurred without increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels, it suggests that the evolution of larger sizes didn’t depend on increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe any fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide, so there’s no evidence in the text to support the conclusion that such fluctuations had different effects on different sauropod lineages. All that the text says about atmospheric carbon dioxide levels is that
there weren’t increases at particular points that corresponded with key moments in sauropod evolution.
Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that there weren’t significant increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide around the time of important periods in sauropods’ evolution toward larger body sizes, not that atmospheric carbon dioxide was higher when the largest sauropods lived than when sauropods first appeared.
Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that atmospheric carbon dioxide levels didn’t increase at important periods in sauropod evolution, not that higher levels would have affected that evolution. The text provides no information about how higher levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide might have affected sauropods.
The last blank in question is most likely asking an option that gives the conclusion. Find that after skimming the paragraph.
17th Question
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Anita Allen’s argument about judges citing philosophers in their judicial opinions. The text indicates that judges sometimes cite philosophers when writing their judicial opinions and that, according to Allen, judges tend to cite philosophers whose views are in agreement with those of the judges themselves.
Allen claims, however, that the best judicial opinions consider potential objections and rebut them, which suggests that judges may be able to strengthen their opinions by including discussions of philosophers with views contrary to their own.
Choice A is incorrect because Allen’s claim is that judges could improve their judicial opinions by citing philosophers who disagree with the views expressed in the opinions, which would necessarily require judges to consult philosophical works.
Choice C is incorrect because there’s no discussion in the text about making judicial opinions more easily understood by any particular group of readers. The focus of the text is on Allen’s claim that judicial opinions could be strengthened by the inclusion of discussions of philosophers whose views disagree with those of the judges authoring the opinions.
Choice D is incorrect because the text presents Allen’s argument that discussing philosophers whose views judges disagree with could strengthen judicial opinions, not that doing so could bring those opinions into line with views that are popular among philosophers.
The last blank in question is most likely asking an option that gives the conclusion. Find that after skimming the paragraph.
18th Question
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The plural pronoun “they” agrees in number with the plural antecedent “customers.”
Choice B is incorrect because the singular pronoun “one” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “customers.”
Choice C is incorrect because the second person pronoun “you” isn’t conventional as a substitute for “customers.” It suggests that the audience (“you”) is the customer.
Choice D is incorrect because the singular pronoun “it” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “customers.”
Read the blanked sentence and a sentence before to choose clearly. Learn Pronouns to understand better: Click Here.
19th Question
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a main clause and a participial phrase. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause (“Epicurus…‘soul’”) and the participial phrase (“positing…absence”) that provides additional information about how Epicurus defined pleasure.
Choice B is incorrect because a colon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and a participial phrase.
Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and a participial phrase.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “positing.”
Work on your Punctuation to better understand it.
20th Question
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of possessive determiners. The plural possessive determiner “their” agrees in number with the plural conjoined noun phrase “Watson and Crick” and thus indicates that the findings were those of Watson and Crick.
Choice A is incorrect because “they’re” is the contraction for “they are,” not a possessive determiner.
Choice B is incorrect because “it’s” is the contraction for “it is” or “it has,” not a possessive determiner.
Choice D is incorrect because the singular possessive determiner “its” doesn’t agree in number with the plural conjoined noun phrase “Watson and Crick.”
Read the blanked sentence and a sentence before to choose clearly. Learn Pronouns to understand better: Click Here.
21th Question
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of plural nouns in a sentence. The plural noun “hands” and the plural noun “antennas” correctly indicate that two hands are placed between two antennas when playing the theremin.
Choice A is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns “hands” and “antennas,” not the singular possessive nouns “hand’s” and “antenna’s.”
Choice C is incorrect because the context requires the plural nouns “hands” and “antennas,” not the plural possessive nouns “hands’” and “antennas’.”
Choice D is incorrect because the context requires the plural noun “hands,” not the plural
possessive noun “hands’.”
To answer such types of questions, you need to learn Preposition and Noun, especially Possessive Noun: Click here to learn
22nd Question
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb “represent” agrees in number with the plural subject “references.”
Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb “represents” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “references.”
Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb “has represented” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “references.”
Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb “was representing” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “references.”
Although there are past sentences in the paragraph but the fill in the blank sentence contains Present Passive Voice. You should learn Passive Voice and Present Simple Tense for this.
23rd Question
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation between titles and proper nouns. No punctuation is needed to set off the proper noun “Marie-Denise Villers” from the title that describes Villers, “little known French portrait artist.”
Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed.
Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed.
Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed.
You should learn Punctuation to find the correct answer easily.
24th Question
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of supplementary elements within a sentence. The comma after “described” separates the first supplementary element (“both of interviewees and the items they described”) from the second supplementary element (“from hair to grass to sculptures”). Furthermore, the dash after “sculptures” pairs with the dash after
“photographs” to separate these two supplementary elements from the rest of the sentence. The pair of dashes, which operate at a higher organizing level than the comma, indicates that the elements between the dashes function together—in this case, the second supplement (“from…sculptures”) describes the range of items mentioned in the first supplement—and could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence.
Choice A is incorrect because it fails to appropriately punctuate the supplementary elements in the sentence. A dash is needed after “sculptures” to separate the supplementary elements (“both…sculptures”) from the rest of the sentence.
Choice C is incorrect because it fails to appropriately punctuate the supplementary elements in the sentence. The two supplementary elements “both…described” and “from…sculptures” function together to describe the photographs, and placing a dash between them would make this relationship less clear, suggesting that the supplement “both…described” is a standalone element that could be removed without affecting the grammatical coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case.
Choice D is incorrect because it fails to appropriately punctuate the supplementary elements in the sentence. A colon isn’t conventionally used in this way to separate a supplementary element (“from hair to grass to sculptures”) from the noun phrase it is modifying (“items they described”). Additionally, a dash is needed after “sculptures” to separate the supplementary elements (“both…sculptures”) from the rest of the sentence.
You should learn Punctuation to find the correct answer easily.
25th Question
Choice D is the best answer. “As a result” logically signals that the information in this sentence—the vessel turning black—is a result of the heating technique discussed in the previous sentence.
Choice A is incorrect because “on the contrary” illogically signals that the information in this sentence directly opposes the heating technique in the previous sentence. Instead, the vessel turns black as a result of that technique.
Choice B is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is an example of the heating technique in the previous sentence. Instead, the vessel turns black as a result of that technique.
Choice C is incorrect because “previously” illogically signals that the information in this sentence occurs earlier in a chronological series of events than does the heating technique discussed in the first two sentences. Instead, the vessel turns black as a result of that technique.
Skim the paragraph or read one sentence before the blank, you must possess a wide set of vocabularies.
26th Question
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively introduces Paradise to an audience unfamiliar with the novel and its author, describing Paradise as a historical novel about colonial East Africa and its author as the winner of the 2021 Nobel Prize in Literature.
Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence introduces Abdulrazak Gurnah to an audience unfamiliar with the author, it doesn’t effectively introduce Paradise.
Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence provides background information about Paradise, it doesn’t effectively introduce the novel to an audience unfamiliar with its author.
Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides background information about Paradise, it doesn’t effectively introduce the novel to an audience unfamiliar with its author.
Sum up all the points from the paragraph and find the most suitable answer.
27th Question
Choice D is the best answer. The sentence uses information from the notes to make a generalization about the kind of study Glickman, Brown, and Song conducted. Specifically, the sentence indicates that the study was of a kind that used statistical methods to address questions of authorship within the field of music.
Choice A is incorrect because the sentence summarizes the methodology and findings of a particular analysis of a single song; it doesn’t make a generalization about the kind of study conducted.
Choice B is incorrect because the sentence mentions the data and conclusion of a particular analysis of a single song; it doesn’t make a generalization about the kind of study conducted.
Choice C is incorrect because the sentence focuses on a specific conclusion from a particular analysis of a single song; it doesn’t make a generalization about the kind of a study conducted.
Sum up all the points from the paragraph and find the most suitable answer.
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Did you get the real-time experience? That is how you will take the final SAT exam. The explanation of answers makes it easy to learn and progress. You must try to work on your speed and spend less time on the beginning and more on the later questions. This is the 1st Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 1st.
Either you can take the 6th Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing or the 5th Practice Test of SAT Reading and Writing Module 2nd.
- SAT Test 5th (Reading and Writing Module 2nd)
- SAT Test 6th (Reading and Writing Module 1st)
- SAT Test 4th (Reading and Writing Module 1st)
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